AWS Certified Developer - Associate Exam Preparation Archives - IT - Engineering - Cloud

Welcome to AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Preparation: Definition and Objectives, Top 65 Questions and Answers dump, White papers, Courses, Labs and Training Materials, Exam info and details, References, Jobs, Others AWS Certificates

What is the AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam?

This AWS Certified Developer-Associate Examination is intended for individuals who perform a
Developer role. It validates an examinee’s ability to:

Demonstrate an understanding of core AWS services, uses, and basic AWS architecture best practices.
Demonstrate proficiency in developing, deploying, and debugging cloud-based applications using AWS.

There are no prerequisites for taking the Developer-Associate examination, but here are the recommended AWS Knowledge:

One or more years of hands-on experience developing and maintaining an AWS based application
In-depth knowledge of at least one high-level programming language
Understanding of core AWS services, uses, and basic AWS architecture best practices
Proficiency in developing, deploying, and debugging cloud-based applications using AWS
Ability to use the AWS service APIs, AWS CLI, and SDKs to write applications
Ability to identify key features of AWS services
Understanding of the AWS shared responsibility model
Understanding of application lifecycle management
Ability to use a CI/CD pipeline to deploy applications on AWS
Ability to use or interact with AWS services
Ability to apply a basic understanding of cloud-native applications to write code
Ability to write code using AWS security best practices (e.g., not using secret and access keys in the code, instead using IAM roles)
Ability to author, maintain, and debug code modules on AWS
Proficiency writing code for serverless applications
Understanding of the use of containers in the development process

To succeed with the real exam, do not memorize the answers below. It is very important that you understand why a question is right or wrong and the concepts behind it by carefully reading the reference documents in the answers.

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AWS Certified Developer – Associate Practice Questions And Answers Dump

Q0: Your application reads commands from an SQS queue and sends them to web services hosted by your
partners. When a partner’s endpoint goes down, your application continually returns their commands to the queue. The repeated attempts to deliver these commands use up resources. Commands that can’t be delivered must not be lost.
How can you accommodate the partners’ broken web services without wasting your resources?

A. Create a delay queue and set DelaySeconds to 30 seconds
B. Requeue the message with a VisibilityTimeout of 30 seconds.
C. Create a dead letter queue and set the Maximum Receives to 3.
D. Requeue the message with a DelaySeconds of 30 seconds.

C. After a message is taken from the queue and returned for the maximum number of retries, it is
automatically sent to a dead letter queue, if one has been configured. It stays there until you retrieve it for forensic purposes.

Reference: Amazon SQS Dead-Letter Queues

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Q1: A developer is writing an application that will store data in a DynamoDB table. The ratio of reads operations to write operations will be 1000 to 1, with the same data being accessed frequently.
What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?

A. Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling
B. Amazon DynamoDB cross-region replication
C. Amazon DynamoDB Streams
D. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator

D. The AWS Documentation mentions the following:

DAX is a DynamoDB-compatible caching service that enables you to benefit from fast in-memory performance for demanding applications. DAX addresses three core scenarios

As an in-memory cache, DAX reduces the response times of eventually-consistent read workloads by an order of magnitude, from single-digit milliseconds to microseconds.
DAX reduces operational and application complexity by providing a managed service that is API-compatible with Amazon DynamoDB, and thus requires only minimal functional changes to use with an existing application.
For read-heavy or bursty workloads, DAX provides increased throughput and potential operational cost savings by reducing the need to over-provision read capacity units. This is especially beneficial for applications that require repeated reads for individual keys.

Reference: AWS DAX

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Q2: You are creating a DynamoDB table with the following attributes:

PurchaseOrderNumber (partition key)
CustomerID
PurchaseDate
TotalPurchaseValue

One of your applications must retrieve items from the table to calculate the total value of purchases for a
particular customer over a date range. What secondary index do you need to add to the table?

A. Local secondary index with a partition key of CustomerID and sort key of PurchaseDate; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute
B. Local secondary index with a partition key of PurchaseDate and sort key of CustomerID; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute
C. Global secondary index with a partition key of CustomerID and sort key of PurchaseDate; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute
D. Global secondary index with a partition key of PurchaseDate and sort key of CustomerID; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute

C. The query is for a particular CustomerID, so a Global Secondary Index is needed for a different partition
key. To retrieve only the desired date range, the PurchaseDate must be the sort key. Projecting the
TotalPurchaseValue into the index provides all the data needed to satisfy the use case.

Reference: AWS DynamoDB Global Secondary Indexes

Difference between local and global indexes in DynamoDB

- Global secondary index — an index with a hash and range key that can be different from those on the table. A global secondary index is considered “global” because queries on the index can span all of the data in a table, across all partitions.
- Local secondary index — an index that has the same hash key as the table, but a different range key. A local secondary index is “local” in the sense that every partition of a local secondary index is scoped to a table partition that has the same hash key.
- Local Secondary Indexes still rely on the original Hash Key. When you supply a table with hash+range, think about the LSI as hash+range1, hash+range2.. hash+range6. You get 5 more range attributes to query on. Also, there is only one provisioned throughput.
- Global Secondary Indexes defines a new paradigm – different hash/range keys per index.
  This breaks the original usage of one hash key per table. This is also why when defining GSI you are required to add a provisioned throughput per index and pay for it.
- Local Secondary Indexes can only be created when you are creating the table, there is no way to add Local Secondary Index to an existing table, also once you create the index you cannot delete it.
- Global Secondary Indexes can be created when you create the table and added to an existing table, deleting an existing Global Secondary Index is also allowed.

Throughput :

Local Secondary Indexes consume throughput from the table. When you query records via the local index, the operation consumes read capacity units from the table. When you perform a write operation (create, update, delete) in a table that has a local index, there will be two write operations, one for the table another for the index. Both operations will consume write capacity units from the table.
Global Secondary Indexes have their own provisioned throughput, when you query the index the operation will consume read capacity from the index, when you perform a write operation (create, update, delete) in a table that has a global index, there will be two write operations, one for the table another for the index*.

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Q3: When referencing the remaining time left for a Lambda function to run within the function’s code you would use:

A. The event object
B. The timeLeft object
C. The remains object
D. The context object

D. The context object.

Reference: AWS Lambda

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Q4: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?

A. invocation, zone
B. event, zone
C. invocation, context
D. event, context

D. event, context
def handler_name(event, context):
…
return some_value

Reference: AWS Lambda Function Handler in Python

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Q5: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:

A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
B. Only via SFTP
C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere

D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere

Reference: AWS Lambda Deployment Package

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Q6: A Lambda deployment package contains:

A. Function code, libraries, and runtime binaries
B. Only function code
C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
D. Only libraries not included within the runtime

C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime

Reference: AWS Lambda Deployment Package in PowerShell

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Q7: You are attempting to SSH into an EC2 instance that is located in a public subnet. However, you are currently receiving a timeout error trying to connect. What could be a possible cause of this connection issue?

A. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic, but does not have an outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
B. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND has an outbound rule that explicitly denies SSH traffic.
C. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND the associated NACL has both an inbound and outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
D. The security group associated with the EC2 instance does not have an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND the associated NACL does not have an outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.

D. Security groups are stateful, so you do NOT have to have an explicit outbound rule for return requests. However, NACLs are stateless so you MUST have an explicit outbound rule configured for return request.

Reference: Comparison of Security Groups and Network ACLs

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Q8: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?

A. Create and assign EIP to each instance
B. Create and attach a second IGW to the VPC.
C. Create and utilize a NAT Gateway
D. Connect to a VPN

C. You can use a network address translation (NAT) gateway in a public subnet in your VPC to enable instances in the private subnet to initiate outbound traffic to the Internet, but prevent the instances from receiving inbound traffic initiated by someone on the Internet.

Reference: AWS Network Address Translation Gateway

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Q9: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?

A. Security Groups
B. Route Tables
C. Elastic Load Balancer
D. Auto Scaling

D. Auto scaling is designed specifically with elasticity in mind. Auto scaling allows for the increase and decrease of compute power based on demand, thus creating elasticity in the architecture.

Reference: AWS Autoscalling

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Q10: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:

A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
B. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere

D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere

Reference: AWS Lambda

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Q11: You’re writing a script with an AWS SDK that uses the AWS API Actions and want to create AMIs for non-EBS backed AMIs for you. Which API call should occurs in the final process of creating an AMI?

A. RegisterImage
B. CreateImage
C. ami-register-image
D. ami-create-image

A. It is actually – RegisterImage. All AWS API Actions will follow the capitalization like this and don't have hyphens in them.

Reference: API RegisterImage

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Q12: When dealing with session state in EC2-based applications using Elastic load balancers which option is generally thought of as the best practice for managing user sessions?

A. Having the ELB distribute traffic to all EC2 instances and then having the instance check a caching solution like ElastiCache running Redis or Memcached for session information
B. Permenantly assigning users to specific instances and always routing their traffic to those instances
C. Using Application-generated cookies to tie a user session to a particular instance for the cookie duration
D. Using Elastic Load Balancer generated cookies to tie a user session to a particular instance

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/caching/session-management/

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Q13: Which API call would best be used to describe an Amazon Machine Image?

A. ami-describe-image
B. ami-describe-images
C. DescribeImage
D. DescribeImages

D. In general, API actions stick to the PascalCase style with the first letter of every word capitalized.

Reference: API DescribeImages

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Q14: What is one key difference between an Amazon EBS-backed and an instance-store backed instance?

A. Autoscaling requires using Amazon EBS-backed instances
B. Virtual Private Cloud requires EBS backed instances
C. Amazon EBS-backed instances can be stopped and restarted without losing data
D. Instance-store backed instances can be stopped and restarted without losing data

C. Instance-store backed images use “ephemeral” storage (temporary). The storage is only available during the life of an instance. Rebooting an instance will allow ephemeral data stay persistent. However, stopping and starting an instance will remove all ephemeral storage.

Reference: What is the difference between EBS and Instance Store?

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Q15: After having created a new Linux instance on Amazon EC2, and downloaded the .pem file (called Toto.pem) you try and SSH into your IP address (54.1.132.33) using the following command.
ssh -i my_key.pem ec2-user@52.2.222.22
However you receive the following error.
@@@@@@@@ WARNING: UNPROTECTED PRIVATE KEY FILE! @ @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
What is the most probable reason for this and how can you fix it?

A. You do not have root access on your terminal and need to use the sudo option for this to work.
B. You do not have enough permissions to perform the operation.
C. Your key file is encrypted. You need to use the -u option for unencrypted not the -i option.
D. Your key file must not be publicly viewable for SSH to work. You need to modify your .pem file to limit permissions.

D. You need to run something like: chmod 400 my_key.pem

Reference:

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Q16: You have an EBS root device on /dev/sda1 on one of your EC2 instances. You are having trouble with this particular instance and you need to either Stop/Start, Reboot or Terminate the instance but you do NOT want to lose any data that you have stored on /dev/sda1. However, you are unsure if changing the instance state in any of the aforementioned ways will cause you to lose data stored on the EBS volume. Which of the below statements best describes the effect each change of instance state would have on the data you have stored on /dev/sda1?

A. Whether you stop/start, reboot or terminate the instance it does not matter because data on an EBS volume is not ephemeral and the data will not be lost regardless of what method is used.
B. If you stop/start the instance the data will not be lost. However if you either terminate or reboot the instance the data will be lost.
C. Whether you stop/start, reboot or terminate the instance it does not matter because data on an EBS volume is ephemeral and it will be lost no matter what method is used.
D. The data will be lost if you terminate the instance, however the data will remain on /dev/sda1 if you reboot or stop/start the instance because data on an EBS volume is not ephemeral.

D. The question states that an EBS-backed root device is mounted at /dev/sda1, and EBS volumes maintain information regardless of the instance state. If it was instance store, this would be a different answer.

Reference: AWS Root Device Storage

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Q17: EC2 instances are launched from Amazon Machine Images (AMIs). A given public AMI:

A. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same AWS availability zone as the AMI is stored
B. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same country as the AMI is stored
C. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same AWS region as the AMI is stored
D. Can be used to launch EC2 instances in any AWS region

C. AMIs are only available in the region they are created. Even in the case of the AWS-provided AMIs, AWS has actually copied the AMIs for you to different regions. You cannot access an AMI from one region in another region. However, you can copy an AMI from one region to another

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/amazon-linux-ami/

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Q18: Which of the following statements is true about the Elastic File System (EFS)?

A. EFS can scale out to meet capacity requirements and scale back down when no longer needed
B. EFS can be used by multiple EC2 instances simultaneously
C. EFS cannot be used by an instance using EBS
D. EFS can be configured on an instance before launch just like an IAM role or EBS volumes

A. and B.

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/efs/

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Q19: IAM Policies, at a minimum, contain what elements?

A. ID
B. Effects
C. Resources
D. Sid
E. Principle
F. Actions

B. C. and F.

Effect – Use Allow or Deny to indicate whether the policy allows or denies access.

Resource – Specify a list of resources to which the actions apply.

Action – Include a list of actions that the policy allows or denies.

Id, Sid aren't required fields in IAM Policies. But they are optional fields

Reference: AWS IAM Access Policies

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Q20: What are the main benefits of IAM groups?

A. The ability to create custom permission policies.
B. Assigning IAM permission policies to more than one user at a time.
C. Easier user/policy management.
D. Allowing EC2 instances to gain access to S3.

B. and C.

A. is incorrect: This is a benefit of IAM generally or a benefit of IAM policies. But IAM groups don't create policies, they have policies attached to them.

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/id_groups.html

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Q21: What are benefits of using AWS STS?

A. Grant access to AWS resources without having to create an IAM identity for them
B. Since credentials are temporary, you don’t have to rotate or revoke them
C. Temporary security credentials can be extended indefinitely
D. Temporary security credentials can be restricted to a specific region

A. and B.

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/id_credentials_temp.html

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Q22: What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?

A. Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling
B. Amazon DynamoDB cross-region replication
C. Amazon DynamoDB Streams
D. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator

D. DAX is a DynamoDB-compatible caching service that enables you to benefit from fast in-memory performance for demanding applications. DAX addresses three core scenarios:

As an in-memory cache, DAX reduces the response times of eventually-consistent read workloads by an order of magnitude, from single-digit milliseconds to microseconds.
DAX reduces operational and application complexity by providing a managed service that is API-compatible with Amazon DynamoDB, and thus requires only minimal functional changes to use with an existing application.
For read-heavy or bursty workloads, DAX provides increased throughput and potential operational cost savings by reducing the need to over-provision read capacity units. This is especially beneficial for applications that require repeated reads for individual keys.

Reference: AWS DAX

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Q23: A Developer has been asked to create an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment for a production web application which needs to handle thousands of requests. Currently the dev environment is running on a t1 micro instance. How can the Developer change the EC2 instance type to m4.large?

A. Use CloudFormation to migrate the Amazon EC2 instance type of the environment from t1 micro to m4.large.
B. Create a saved configuration file in Amazon S3 with the instance type as m4.large and use the same during environment creation.
C. Change the instance type to m4.large in the configuration details page of the Create New Environment page.
D. Change the instance type value for the environment to m4.large by using update autoscaling group CLI command.

B. The Elastic Beanstalk console and EB CLI set configuration options when you create an environment. You can also set configuration options in saved configurations and configuration files. If the same option is set in multiple locations, the value used is determined by the order of precedence.
Configuration option settings can be composed in text format and saved prior to environment creation, applied during environment creation using any supported client, and added, modified or removed after environment creation.
During environment creation, configuration options are applied from multiple sources with the following precedence, from highest to lowest:

Settings applied directly to the environment – Settings specified during a create environment or update environment operation on the Elastic Beanstalk API by any client, including the AWS Management Console, EB CLI, AWS CLI, and SDKs. The AWS Management Console and EB CLI also applyrecommended values for some options that apply at this level unless overridden.
Saved Configurations–
Settings for any options that are not applied directly to the
environment are loaded from a saved configuration, if specified.
Configuration Files (.ebextensions)– Settings for any options that are not applied directly to the
environment, and also not specified in a saved configuration, are loaded from configuration files in the .ebextensions folder at the root of the application source bundle.

Configuration files are executed in alphabetical order. For example,.ebextensions/01run.configis executed before.ebextensions/02do.config.
Default Values– If a configuration option has a default value, it only applies when the option is not set at any of the above levels.

If the same configuration option is defined in more than one location, the setting with the highest precedence is applied. When a setting is applied from a saved configuration or settings applied directly to the environment, the setting is stored as part of the environment's configuration. These settings can be removed with the AWS CLI or with the EB CLI
.
Settings in configuration files are not applied
directly to the environment and cannot be removed without modifying the configuration files and deploying a new application version.If a setting applied with one of the other methods is removed, the same setting will be loaded from configuration files in the source bundle.

Reference: Managing ec2 features – Elastic beanstalk

Q24: What statements are true about Availability Zones (AZs) and Regions?

A. There is only one AZ in each AWS Region
B. AZs are geographically separated inside a region to help protect against natural disasters affecting more than one at a time.
C. AZs can be moved between AWS Regions based on your needs
D. There are (almost always) two or more AZs in each AWS Region

B and D.

Reference: AWS global infrastructure/

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Q25: An AWS Region contains:

A. Edge Locations
B. Data Centers
C. AWS Services
D. Availability Zones

B. C. D. Edge locations are actually distinct locations that don't explicitly fall within AWS regions.

Reference: AWS Global Infrastructure

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Q26: Which read request in DynamoDB returns a response with the most up-to-date data, reflecting the updates from all prior write operations that were successful?

A. Eventual Consistent Reads
B. Conditional reads for Consistency
C. Strongly Consistent Reads
D. Not possible

C. This is provided very clearly in the AWS documentation as shown below with regards to the read consistency for DynamoDB. Only in Strong Read consistency can you be guaranteed that you get the write read value after all the writes are completed.

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/dynamodb/faqs/

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Q27: You’ ve been asked to move an existing development environment on the AWS Cloud. This environment consists mainly of Docker based containers. You need to ensure that minimum effort is taken during the migration process. Which of the following step would you consider for this requirement?

A. Create an Opswork stack and deploy the Docker containers
B. Create an application and Environment for the Docker containers in the Elastic Beanstalk service
C. Create an EC2 Instance. Install Docker and deploy the necessary containers.
D. Create an EC2 Instance. Install Docker and deploy the necessary containers. Add an Autoscaling Group for scalability of the containers.

B. The Elastic Beanstalk service is the ideal service to quickly provision development environments. You can also create environments which can be used to host Docker based containers.

Reference: Create and Deploy Docker in AWS

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Q28: You’ve written an application that uploads objects onto an S3 bucket. The size of the object varies between 200 – 500 MB. You’ve seen that the application sometimes takes a longer than expected time to upload the object. You want to improve the performance of the application. Which of the following would you consider?

A. Create multiple threads and upload the objects in the multiple threads
B. Write the items in batches for better performance
C. Use the Multipart upload API
D. Enable versioning on the Bucket

C. All other options are invalid since the best way to handle large object uploads to the S3 service is to use the Multipart upload API. The Multipart upload API enables you to upload large objects in parts. You can use this API to upload new large objects or make a copy of an existing object. Multipart uploading is a three-step process: You initiate the upload, you upload the object parts, and after you have uploaded all the parts, you complete the multipart upload. Upon receiving the complete multipart upload request, Amazon S3 constructs the object from the uploaded parts, and you can then access the object just as you would any other object in your bucket.

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/mpuoverview.html

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Q29: A security system monitors 600 cameras, saving image metadata every 1 minute to an Amazon DynamoDb table. Each sample involves 1kb of data, and the data writes are evenly distributed over time. How much write throughput is required for the target table?

A. 6000
B. 10
C. 3600
D. 600

B. When you mention the write capacity of a table in Dynamo DB, you mention it as the number of 1KB writes per second. So in the above question, since the write is happening every minute, we need to divide the value of 600 by 60, to get the number of KB writes per second. This gives a value of 10.

You can specify the Write capacity in the Capacity tab of the DynamoDB table.

Reference: AWS working with tables

Q30: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?

A. invocation, zone
B. event, zone
C. invocation, context
D. event, context

D. event, context def handler_name(event, context):
…
return some_value
Reference: AWS Lambda Function Handler in Python

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Q31: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:

A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
B. Only via SFTP
C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere

D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Reference: AWS Lambda Deployment Package

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Q32: A Lambda deployment package contains:

A. Function code, libraries, and runtime binaries
B. Only function code
C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
D. Only libraries not included within the runtime

C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
Reference: AWS Lambda Deployment Package in PowerShell

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Q33: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?

A. Create and assign EIP to each instance
B. Create and attach a second IGW to the VPC.
C. Create and utilize a NAT Gateway
D. Connect to a VPN

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Q34: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?

A. Security Groups
B. Route Tables
C. Elastic Load Balancer
D. Auto Scaling

D. Auto scaling is designed specifically with elasticity in mind. Auto scaling allows for the increase and decrease of compute power based on demand, thus creating elasticity in the architecture.
Reference: AWS Autoscalling

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Q30: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:

A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
B. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere

Answer:

D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Reference: AWS Lambda

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Q31: An organization is using an Amazon ElastiCache cluster in front of their Amazon RDS instance. The organization would like the Developer to implement logic into the code so that the cluster only retrieves data from RDS when there is a cache miss. What strategy can the Developer implement to achieve this?

A. Lazy loading
B. Write-through
C. Error retries
D. Exponential backoff

Answer:

Answer – A
Whenever your application requests data, it first makes the request to the ElastiCache cache. If the data exists in the cache and is current, ElastiCache returns the data to your application. If the data does not exist in the cache, or the data in the cache has expired, your application requests data from your data store which returns the data to your application. Your application then writes the data received from the store to the cache so it can be more quickly retrieved next time it is requested. All other options are incorrect.
Reference: Caching Strategies

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Q32: A developer is writing an application that will run on Ec2 instances and read messages from SQS queue. The nessages will arrive every 15-60 seconds. How should the Developer efficiently query the queue for new messages?

A. Use long polling
B. Set a custom visibility timeout
C. Use short polling
D. Implement exponential backoff

Answer – A Long polling will help insure that the applications make less requests for messages in a shorter period of time. This is more cost effective. Since the messages are only going to be available after 15 seconds and we don't know exacly when they would be available, it is better to use Long Polling.
Reference: Amazon SQS Long Polling

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Q33: You are using AWS SAM to define a Lambda function and configure CodeDeploy to manage deployment patterns. With new Lambda function working as per expectation which of the following will shift traffic from original Lambda function to new Lambda function in the shortest time frame?

A. Canary10Percent5Minutes
B. Linear10PercentEvery10Minutes
C. Canary10Percent15Minutes
D. Linear10PercentEvery1Minute

Answer – A
With Canary Deployment Preference type, Traffic is shifted in two intervals. With Canary10Percent5Minutes, 10 percent of traffic is shifted in the first interval while remaining all traffic is shifted after 5 minutes.
Reference: Gradual Code Deployment

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Q34: You are using AWS SAM templates to deploy a serverless application. Which of the following resource will embed application from Amazon S3 buckets?

A. AWS::Serverless::Api
B. AWS::Serverless::Application
C. AWS::Serverless::Layerversion
D. AWS::Serverless::Function

Answer – B
AWS::Serverless::Application resource in AWS SAm template is used to embed application frm Amazon S3 buckets.
Reference: Declaring Serverless Resources

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Q35: You are using AWS Envelope Encryption for encrypting all sensitive data. Which of the followings is True with regards to Envelope Encryption?

A. Data is encrypted be encrypting Data key which is further encrypted using encrypted Master Key.
B. Data is encrypted by plaintext Data key which is further encrypted using encrypted Master Key.
C. Data is encrypted by encrypted Data key which is further encrypted using plaintext Master Key.
D. Data is encrypted by plaintext Data key which is further encrypted using plaintext Master Key.

Answer – D
With Envelope Encryption, unencrypted data is encrypted using plaintext Data key. This Data is further encrypted using plaintext Master key. This plaintext Master key is securely stored in AWS KMS & known as Customer Master Keys.
Reference: AWS Key Management Service Concepts

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Q36: You are developing an application that will be comprised of the following architecture –

A set of Ec2 instances to process the videos.
These (Ec2 instances) will be spun up by an autoscaling group.
SQS Queues to maintain the processing messages.
There will be 2 pricing tiers.

How will you ensure that the premium customers videos are given more preference?

A. Create 2 Autoscaling Groups, one for normal and one for premium customers
B. Create 2 set of Ec2 Instances, one for normal and one for premium customers
C. Create 2 SQS queus, one for normal and one for premium customers
D. Create 2 Elastic Load Balancers, one for normal and one for premium customers.

Answer – C
The ideal option would be to create 2 SQS queues. Messages can then be processed by the application from the high priority queue first.<br? The other options are not the ideal options. They would lead to extra costs and also extra maintenance.
Reference: SQS

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Q37: You are developing an application that will interact with a DynamoDB table. The table is going to take in a lot of read and write operations. Which of the following would be the ideal partition key for the DynamoDB table to ensure ideal performance?

A. CustomerID
B. CustomerName
C. Location
D. Age

Answer- A
Use high-cardinality attributes. These are attributes that have distinct values for each item, like e-mailid, employee_no, customerid, sessionid, orderid, and so on..
Use composite attributes. Try to combine more than one attribute to form a unique key.
Reference: Choosing the right DynamoDB Partition Key

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Q38: A developer is making use of AWS services to develop an application. He has been asked to develop the application in a manner to compensate any network delays. Which of the following two mechanisms should he implement in the application?

A. Multiple SQS queues
B. Exponential backoff algorithm
C. Retries in your application code
D. Consider using the Java sdk.

Answer- B. and C.
In addition to simple retries, each AWS SDK implements exponential backoff algorithm for better flow control. The idea behind exponential backoff is to use progressively longer waits between retries for consecutive error responses. You should implement a maximum delay interval, as well as a maximum number of retries. The maximum delay interval and maximum number of retries are not necessarily fixed values, and should be set based on the operation being performed, as well as other local factors, such as network latency.
Reference: Error Retries and Exponential Backoff in AWS

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Q39: An application is being developed that is going to write data to a DynamoDB table. You have to setup the read and write throughput for the table. Data is going to be read at the rate of 300 items every 30 seconds. Each item is of size 6KB. The reads can be eventual consistent reads. What should be the read capacity that needs to be set on the table?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 6
D. 30

Answer – A

Since there are 300 items read every 30 seconds , that means there are (300/30) = 10 items read every second.
Since each item is 6KB in size , that means , 2 reads will be required for each item.
So we have total of 2*10 = 20 reads for the number of items per second
Since eventual consistency is required , we can divide the number of reads(20) by 2 , and in the end we get the Read Capacity of 10.

Reference: Read/Write Capacity Mode

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Q40: You are in charge of deploying an application that will be hosted on an EC2 Instance and sit behind an Elastic Load balancer. You have been requested to monitor the incoming connections to the Elastic Load Balancer. Which of the below options can suffice this requirement?

A. Use AWS CloudTrail with your load balancer
B. Enable access logs on the load balancer
C. Use a CloudWatch Logs Agent
D. Create a custom metric CloudWatch lter on your load balancer

Answer – B
Elastic Load Balancing provides access logs that capture detailed information about requests sent to your load balancer. Each log contains information such as the time the request was received, the client's IP address, latencies, request paths, and server responses. You can use these access logs to analyze traffic patterns and troubleshoot issues.
Reference: Access Logs for Your Application Load Balancer

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Q41: A static web site has been hosted on a bucket and is now being accessed by users. One of the web pages javascript section has been changed to access data which is hosted in another S3 bucket. Now that same web page is no longer loading in the browser. Which of the following can help alleviate the error?

A. Enable versioning for the underlying S3 bucket.
B. Enable Replication so that the objects get replicated to the other bucket
C. Enable CORS for the bucket
D. Change the Bucket policy for the bucket to allow access from the other bucket

Answer – C

Cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) defines a way for client web applications that are loaded in one domain to interact with resources in a different domain. With CORS support, you can build rich client-side web applications with Amazon S3 and selectively allow cross-origin access to your Amazon S3 resources.

Cross-Origin Resource Sharing: Use-case Scenarios The following are example scenarios for using CORS:

Scenario 1: Suppose that you are hosting a website in an Amazon S3 bucket named website as described in Hosting a Static Website on Amazon S3. Your users load the website endpoint http://website.s3-website-us-east-1.amazonaws.com. Now you want to use JavaScript on the webpages that are stored in this bucket to be able to make authenticated GET and PUT requests against the same bucket by using the Amazon S3 API endpoint for the bucket, website.s3.amazonaws.com. A browser would normally block JavaScript from allowing those requests, but with CORS you can congure your bucket to explicitly enable cross-origin requests from website.s3-website-us-east-1.amazonaws.com.

Scenario 2: Suppose that you want to host a web font from your S3 bucket. Again, browsers require a CORS check (also called a preight check) for loading web fonts. You would congure the bucket that is hosting the web font to allow any origin to make these requests.

Reference: Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS)

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Q42: Your mobile application includes a photo-sharing service that is expecting tens of thousands of users at launch. You will leverage Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3) for storage of the user Images, and you must decide how to authenticate and authorize your users for access to these images. You also need to manage the storage of these images. Which two of the following approaches should you use? Choose two answers from the options below

A. Create an Amazon S3 bucket per user, and use your application to generate the S3 URL for the appropriate content.
B. Use AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) user accounts as your application-level user database, and offload the burden of authentication from your application code.
C. Authenticate your users at the application level, and use AWS Security Token Service (STS)to grant token-based authorization to S3 objects.
D. Authenticate your users at the application level, and send an SMS token message to the user. Create an Amazon S3 bucket with the same name as the SMS message token, and move the user’s objects to that bucket.

Answer- C
The AWS Security Token Service (STS) is a web service that enables you to request temporary, limited-privilege credentials for AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) users or for users that you authenticate (federated users). The token can then be used to grant access to the objects in S3.
You can then provides access to the objects based on the key values generated via the user id.

Reference: The AWS Security Token Service (STS)

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Q43: Your current log analysis application takes more than four hours to generate a report of the top 10 users of your web application. You have been asked to implement a system that can report this information in real time, ensure that the report is always up to date, and handle increases in the number of requests to your web application. Choose the option that is cost-effective and can fulfill the requirements.

A. Publish your data to CloudWatch Logs, and congure your application to Autoscale to handle the load on demand.
B. Publish your log data to an Amazon S3 bucket. Use AWS CloudFormation to create an Auto Scaling group to scale your post-processing application which is congured to pull down your log les stored an Amazon S3
C. Post your log data to an Amazon Kinesis data stream, and subscribe your log-processing application so that is congured to process your logging data.
D. Create a multi-AZ Amazon RDS MySQL cluster, post the logging data to MySQL, and run a map reduce job to retrieve the required information on user counts.

Answer:

Answer – C
Amazon Kinesis makes it easy to collect, process, and analyze real-time, streaming data so you can get timely insights and react quickly to new information. Amazon Kinesis offers key capabilities to cost effectively process streaming data at any scale, along with the flexibility to choose the tools that best suit the requirements of your application. With Amazon Kinesis, you can ingest real-time data such as application logs, website clickstreams, IoT telemetry data, and more into your databases, data lakes and data warehouses, or build your own real-time applications using this data.
Reference: Amazon Kinesis

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Q44: You’ve been instructed to develop a mobile application that will make use of AWS services. You need to decide on a data store to store the user sessions. Which of the following would be an ideal data store for session management?

A. AWS Simple Storage Service
B. AWS DynamoDB
C. AWS RDS
D. AWS Redshift

Answer:

Answer – B
DynamoDB is a alternative solution which can be used for storage of session management. The latency of access to data is less , hence this can be used as a data store for session management
Reference: Scalable Session Handling in PHP Using Amazon DynamoDB

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Q45: Your application currently interacts with a DynamoDB table. Records are inserted into the table via the application. There is now a requirement to ensure that whenever items are updated in the DynamoDB primary table , another record is inserted into a secondary table. Which of the below feature should be used when developing such a solution?

A. AWS DynamoDB Encryption
B. AWS DynamoDB Streams
C. AWS DynamoDB Accelerator
D. AWSTable Accelerator

Answer – B
DynamoDB Streams Use Cases and Design Patterns This post describes some common use cases you might encounter, along with their design options and solutions, when migrating data from relational data stores to Amazon DynamoDB. We will consider how to manage the following scenarios:

How do you set up a relationship across multiple tables in which, based on the value of an item from one table, you update the item in a second table?
How do you trigger an event based on a particular transaction?
How do you audit or archive transactions?
How do you replicate data across multiple tables (similar to that of materialized views/streams/replication in relational data stores)?

Relational databases provide native support for transactions, triggers, auditing, and replication. Typically, a transaction in a database refers to performing create, read, update, and delete (CRUD) operations against multiple tables in a block. A transaction can have only two states—success or failure. In other words, there is no partial completion. As a NoSQL database, DynamoDB is not designed to support transactions. Although client-side libraries are available to mimic the transaction capabilities, they are not scalable and cost-effective. For example, the Java Transaction Library for DynamoDB creates 7N+4 additional writes for every write operation. This is partly because the library holds metadata to manage the transactions to ensure that it’s consistent and can be rolled back before commit. You can use DynamoDB Streams to address all these use cases. DynamoDB Streams is a powerful service that you can combine with other AWS services to solve many similar problems. When enabled, DynamoDB Streams captures a time-ordered sequence of item-level modifications in a DynamoDB table and durably stores the information for up to 24 hours. Applications can access a series of stream records, which contain an item change, from a DynamoDB stream in near real time. AWS maintains separate endpoints for DynamoDB and DynamoDB Streams. To work with database tables and indexes, your application must access a DynamoDB endpoint. To read and process DynamoDB Streams records, your application must access a DynamoDB Streams endpoint in the same Region. All of the other options are incorrect since none of these would meet the core requirement.
Reference: DynamoDB Streams Use Cases and Design Patterns

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Q46: An application has been making use of AWS DynamoDB for its back-end data store. The size of the table has now grown to 20 GB , and the scans on the table are causing throttling errors. Which of the following should now be implemented to avoid such errors?

A. Large Page size
B. Reduced page size
C. Parallel Scans
D. Sequential scans

Answer – B
When you scan your table in Amazon DynamoDB, you should follow the DynamoDB best practices for avoiding sudden bursts of read activity. You can use the following technique to minimize the impact of a scan on a table's provisioned throughput. Reduce page size Because a Scan operation reads an entire page (by default, 1 MB), you can reduce the impact of the scan operation by setting a smaller page size. The Scan operation provides a Limit parameter that you can use to set the page size for your request. Each Query or Scan request that has a smaller page size uses fewer read operations and creates a “pause” between each request. For example, suppose that each item is 4 KB and you set the page size to 40 items. A Query request would then consume only 20 eventually consistent read operations or 40 strongly consistent read operations. A larger number of smaller Query or Scan operations would allow your other critical requests to succeed without throttling.
Reference1: Rate-Limited Scans in Amazon DynamoDB

Reference2: Best Practices for Querying and Scanning Data

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Q47: Which of the following is correct way of passing a stage variable to an HTTP URL ? (Select TWO.)

A. http://example.com/${}/prod
B. http://example.com/${stageVariables.}/prod
C. http://${stageVariables.}.example.com/dev/operation
D. http://${stageVariables}.example.com/dev/operation
E. http://${}.example.com/dev/operation
F. http://example.com/${stageVariables}/prod

Answer – B. and C.
A stage variable can be used as part of HTTP integration URL as in following cases, · A full URI without protocol · A full domain · A subdomain · A path · A query string In the above case , option B & C displays stage variable as a path & sub-domain.
Reference: Amazon API Gateway Stage Variables Reference

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Q48: Your company is planning on creating new development environments in AWS. They want to make use of their existing Chef recipes which they use for their on-premise configuration for servers in AWS. Which of the following service would be ideal to use in this regard?

A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
B. AWS OpsWork
C. AWS Cloudformation
D. AWS SQS

Answer – B
AWS OpsWorks is a configuration management service that provides managed instances of Chef and Puppet. Chef and Puppet are automation platforms that allow you to use code to automate the configurations of your servers. OpsWorks lets you use Chef and Puppet to automate how servers are configured, deployed, and managed across your Amazon EC2 instances or on-premises compute environments All other options are invalid since they cannot be used to work with Chef recipes for configuration management.
Reference: AWS OpsWorks

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Q49: Your company has developed a web application and is hosting it in an Amazon S3 bucket configured for static website hosting. The users can log in to this app using their Google/Facebook login accounts. The application is using the AWS SDK for JavaScript in the browser to access data stored in an Amazon DynamoDB table. How can you ensure that API keys for access to your data in DynamoDB are kept secure?

A. Create an Amazon S3 role in IAM with access to the specific DynamoDB tables, and assign it to the bucket hosting your website
B. Configure S3 bucket tags with your AWS access keys for your bucket hosing your website so that the application can query them for access.
C. Configure a web identity federation role within IAM to enable access to the correct DynamoDB resources and retrieve temporary credentials
D. Store AWS keys in global variables within your application and configure the application to use these credentials when making requests.

Answer – C
With web identity federation, you don't need to create custom sign-in code or manage your own user identities. Instead, users of your app can sign in using a well-known identity provider (IdP) —such as Login with Amazon, Facebook, Google, or any other OpenID Connect (OIDC)-compatible IdP, receive an authentication token, and then exchange that token for temporary security credentials in AWS that map to an IAM role with permissions to use the resources in your AWS account. Using an IdP helps you keep your AWS account secure, because you don't have to embed and distribute long-term security credentials with your application. Option A is invalid since Roles cannot be assigned to S3 buckets Options B and D are invalid since the AWS Access keys should not be used
Reference: About Web Identity Federation

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Q50: Your application currently makes use of AWS Cognito for managing user identities. You want to analyze the information that is stored in AWS Cognito for your application. Which of the following features of AWS Cognito should you use for this purpose?

A. Cognito Data
B. Cognito Events
C. Cognito Streams
D. Cognito Callbacks

Answer – C
Amazon Cognito Streams gives developers control and insight into their data stored in Amazon Cognito. Developers can now configure a Kinesis stream to receive events as data is updated and synchronized. Amazon Cognito can push each dataset change to a Kinesis stream you own in real time. All other options are invalid since you should use Cognito Streams
Reference:

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Q51: You’ve developed a set of scripts using AWS Lambda. These scripts need to access EC2 Instances in a VPC. Which of the following needs to be done to ensure that the AWS Lambda function can access the resources in the VPC. Choose 2 answers from the options given below

A. Ensure that the subnet ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
B. Ensure that the NACL ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
C. Ensure that the Security Group ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
D. Ensure that the VPC Flow Log ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function

Answer: A and C.
AWS Lambda runs your function code securely within a VPC by default. However, to enable your Lambda function to access resources inside your private VPC, you must provide additional VPCspecific configuration information that includes VPC subnet IDs and security group IDs. AWS Lambda uses this information to set up elastic network interfaces (ENIs) that enable your function to connect securely to other resources within your private VPC.
Reference: Configuring a Lambda Function to Access Resources in an Amazon VPC

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Q52: You’ve currently been tasked to migrate an existing on-premise environment into Elastic Beanstalk. The application does not make use of Docker containers. You also can’t see any relevant environments in the beanstalk service that would be suitable to host your application. What should you consider doing in this case?

A. Migrate your application to using Docker containers and then migrate the app to the Elastic Beanstalk environment.
B. Consider using Cloudformation to deploy your environment to Elastic Beanstalk
C. Consider using Packer to create a custom platform
D. Consider deploying your application using the Elastic Container Service

Answer – C
Elastic Beanstalk supports custom platforms. A custom platform is a more advanced customization than a Custom Image in several ways. A custom platform lets you develop an entire new platform from scratch, customizing the operating system, additional software, and scripts that Elastic Beanstalk runs on platform instances. This flexibility allows you to build a platform for an application that uses a language or other infrastructure software, for which Elastic Beanstalk doesn't provide a platform out of the box. Compare that to custom images, where you modify an AMI for use with an existing Elastic Beanstalk platform, and Elastic Beanstalk still provides the platform scripts and controls the platform's software stack. In addition, with custom platforms you use an automated, scripted way to create and maintain your customization, whereas with custom images you make the changes manually over a running instance. To create a custom platform, you build an Amazon Machine Image (AMI) from one of the supported operating systems—Ubuntu, RHEL, or Amazon Linux (see the flavor entry in Platform.yaml File Format for the exact version numbers)—and add further customizations. You create your own Elastic Beanstalk platform using Packer, which is an open-source tool for creating machine images for many platforms, including AMIs for use with Amazon EC2. An Elastic Beanstalk platform comprises an AMI configured to run a set of software that supports an application, and metadata that can include custom configuration options and default configuration option settings.
Reference: AWS Elastic Beanstalk Custom Platforms

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Q53: Company B is writing 10 items to the Dynamo DB table every second. Each item is 15.5Kb in size. What would be the required provisioned write throughput for best performance? Choose the correct answer from the options below.

A. 10
B. 160
C. 155
D. 16

Answer – B.
Company B is writing 10 items to the Dynamo DB table every second. Each item is 15.5Kb in size. What would be the required provisioned write throughput for best performance? Choose the correct answer from the options below.
Reference: Read/Write Capacity Mode

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Q54: Which AWS Service can be used to automatically install your application code onto EC2, on premises systems and Lambda?

A. CodeCommit
B. X-Ray
C. CodeBuild
D. CodeDeploy

Answer: D

Reference: AWS CodeDeploy

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Q55: Which AWS service can be used to compile source code, run tests and package code?

A. CodePipeline
B. CodeCommit
C. CodeBuild
D. CodeDeploy

Answer: D

Reference: AWS CodeDeploy Answer: B.

Reference: AWS CodeBuild

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Q56: How can your prevent CloudFormation from deleting your entire stack on failure? (Choose 2)

A. Set the Rollback on failure radio button to No in the CloudFormation console
B. Set Termination Protection to Enabled in the CloudFormation console
C. Use the –disable-rollback flag with the AWS CLI
D. Use the –enable-termination-protection protection flag with the AWS CLI

Answer: A. and C.

Reference: Protecting a Stack From Being Deleted

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Q57: Which of the following practices allows multiple developers working on the same application to merge code changes frequently, without impacting each other and enables the identification of bugs early on in the release process?

A. Continuous Integration
B. Continuous Deployment
C. Continuous Delivery
D. Continuous Development

Answer: A

Reference: What is Continuous Integration?

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Q58: When deploying application code to EC2, the AppSpec file can be written in which language?

A. JSON
B. JSON or YAML
C. XML
D. YAML

Answer: YAML

Reference: AppSpec Files on an EC2/On-Premises Compute Platform

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Q59: Part of your CloudFormation deployment fails due to a mis-configuration, by defaukt what will happen?

A. CloudFormation will rollback only the failed components
B. CloudFormation will rollback the entire stack
C. Failed component will remain available for debugging purposes
D. CloudFormation will ask you if you want to continue with the deployment

Answer: B

Reference: Troubleshooting AWS CloudFormation

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Q60: You want to receive an email whenever a user pushes code to CodeCommit repository, how can you configure this?

A. Create a new SNS topic and configure it to poll for CodeCommit eveents. Ask all users to subscribe to the topic to receive notifications
B. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SES which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
C. Configure Notifications in the console, this will create a CloudWatch events rule to send a notification to a SNS topic which will trigger an email to be sent to the user.
D. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SQS which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.

Answer: C

Reference: Getting Started with Amazon SNS

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Q61: Which AWS service can be used to centrally store and version control your application source code, binaries and libraries

A. CodeCommit
B. CodeBuild
C. CodePipeline
D. ElasticFileSystem

Answer: A

Reference: AWS CodeCommit

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Q62: You are using CloudFormation to create a new S3 bucket, which of the following sections would you use to define the properties of your bucket?

A. Conditions
B. Parameters
C. Outputs
D. Resources

Answer: D

Reference: Resources

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Q63: You are deploying a number of EC2 and RDS instances using CloudFormation. Which section of the CloudFormation template would you use to define these?

A. Transforms
B. Outputs
C. Resources
D. Instances

Answer: C.
The Resources section defines your resources you are provisioning. Outputs is used to output user defines data relating to the reources you have built and can also used as input to another CloudFormation stack. Transforms is used to reference code located in S3.
Reference: Resources

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Q64: Which AWS service can be used to fully automate your entire release process?

A. CodeDeploy
B. CodePipeline
C. CodeCommit
D. CodeBuild

Answer: B.
AWS CodePipeline is a fully managed continuous delivery service that helps you automate your release pipelines for fast and reliable application and infrastructure updates

Reference: AWS CodePipeline

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Q65: You want to use the output of your CloudFormation stack as input to another CloudFormation stack. Which sections of the CloudFormation template would you use to help you configure this?

A. Outputs
B. Transforms
C. Resources
D. Exports

Answer: A.
Outputs is used to output user defines data relating to the reources you have built and can also used as input to another CloudFormation stack.
Reference: CloudFormation Outputs

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Q66: You have some code located in an S3 bucket that you want to reference in your CloudFormation template. Which section of the template can you use to define this?

A. Inputs
B. Resources
C. Transforms
D. Files

Answer: C.
Transforms is used to reference code located in S3 and also specififying the use of the Serverless Application Model (SAM) for Lambda deployments.
Reference: Transforms

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Q67: You are deploying an application to a number of Ec2 instances using CodeDeploy. What is the name of the file
used to specify source files and lifecycle hooks?

A. buildspec.yml
B. appspec.json
C. appspec.yml
D. buildspec.json

Answer: C.

Reference: CodeDeploy AppSpec File Reference

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Q68: Which of the following approaches allows you to re-use pieces of CloudFormation code in multiple templates, for common use cases like provisioning a load balancer or web server?

A. Share the code using an EBS volume
B. Copy and paste the code into the template each time you need to use it
C. Use a cloudformation nested stack
D. Store the code you want to re-use in an AMI and reference the AMI from within your CloudFormation template.

Answer: C.

Reference: Working with Nested Stacks

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Q69: In the CodeDeploy AppSpec file, what are hooks used for?

A. To reference AWS resources that will be used during the deployment
B. Hooks are reserved for future use
C. To specify files you want to copy during the deployment.
D. To specify, scripts or function that you want to run at set points in the deployment lifecycle

Answer: D.
The 'hooks' section for an EC2/On-Premises deployment contains mappings that link deployment lifecycle event hooks to one or more scripts.

Reference: AppSpec 'hooks' Section

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Q70: Which command can you use to encrypt a plain text file using CMK?

A. aws kms-encrypt
B. aws iam encrypt
C. aws kms encrypt
D. aws encrypt

Answer: C.
aws kms encrypt –key-id 1234abcd-12ab-34cd-56ef-1234567890ab –plaintext fileb://ExamplePlaintextFile –output text –query CiphertextBlob > C:\Temp\ExampleEncryptedFile.base64

Reference: AWS CLI Encrypt

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Q71:

Answer here

Reference:

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Q72: Which of the following is an encrypted key used by KMS to encrypt your data

A. Custmoer Mamaged Key
B. Encryption Key
C. Envelope Key
D. Customer Master Key

Answer: C.
Your Data key also known as the Enveloppe key is encrypted using the master key.This approach is known as Envelope encryption.
Envelope encryption is the practice of encrypting plaintext data with a data key, and then encrypting the data key under another key.

Reference: Envelope Encryption

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Q73: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose 2)

A. The Customer Master Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Envelope Key or Data Key
B. The Envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
C. The envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Customer Master Key.
D. The Customer MasterKey is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.

Answer: A. and B.

Reference: AWS Key Management Service Concepts

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Q74: Which of the following statements is correct in relation to kMS/ (Choose 2)

A. KMS Encryption keys are regional
B. You cannot export your customer master key
C. You can export your customer master key.
D. KMS encryption Keys are global

Answer: A. and B.

Reference: AWS Key Management Service FAQs

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AWS Certified Developer Associate exam: Whitepapers

AWS has provided whitepapers to help you understand the technical concepts. Below are the recommended whitepapers for the AWS Certified Developer – Associate Exam.

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Online Training and Labs for AWS Certified Developer Associates Exam

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AWS Developer Associates Jobs

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AWS Certified Developer-Associate Exam info and details, How To:

The AWS Certified Developer Associate exam is a multiple choice, multiple answer exam. Here is the Exam Overview:

Certification Name: AWS Certified Developer Associate.
Prerequisites for the Exam: None.
Exam Pattern: Multiple Choice Questions
The AWS Certified Developer-Associate Examination (DVA-C01) is a pass or fail exam. The examination is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals guided by certification industry best practices and guidelines.
Your results for the examination are reported as a score from 100 – 1000, with a minimum passing score of 720.
Exam fees: US $150

Exam Guide on AWS Website
Available languages for tests: English, Japanese, Korean, Simplified Chinese
Read AWS whitepapers
Register for certification account here.
Prepare for Certification Here

Exam Content Outline

Domain	% of Examination
Domain 1: Deployment (22%) 1.1 Deploy written code in AWS using existing CI/CD pipelines, processes, and patterns. 1.2 Deploy applications using Elastic Beanstalk. 1.3 Prepare the application deployment package to be deployed to AWS. 1.4 Deploy serverless applications	22%
Domain 2: Security (26%) 2.1 Make authenticated calls to AWS services. 2.2 Implement encryption using AWS services. 2.3 Implement application authentication and authorization.	26%
Domain 3: Development with AWS Services (30%) 3.1 Write code for serverless applications. 3.2 Translate functional requirements into application design. 3.3 Implement application design into application code. 3.4 Write code that interacts with AWS services by using APIs, SDKs, and AWS CLI.	30%
Domain 4: Refactoring 4.1 Optimize application to best use AWS services and features. 4.2 Migrate existing application code to run on AWS.	10%
Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting (10%) 5.1 Write code that can be monitored. 5.2 Perform root cause analysis on faults found in testing or production.	10%
TOTAL	100%

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AWS Certified Developer Associate exam: Additional Information for reference

Below are some useful reference links that would help you to learn about AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam.

Developing on AWS: An instructor-led live or virtual 3-day course
https://aws.amazon.com/certification/faqs/
AWS Digital Training: Application Services, Developer Tools, and other services covered on the exam
Prepare for AWS Certification
AWS EC2 Instance info
AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Guide

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Other Relevant and Recommended AWS Certifications

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Welcome to AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Preparation: Definition and Objectives, Top 65 Questions and Answers dump, White papers, Courses, Labs and Training Materials, Exam info and details, References, Jobs, Others AWS Certificates

What is the AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam?

AWS Certified Developer – Associate Practice Questions And Answers Dump

Q1: A developer is writing an application that will store data in a DynamoDB table. The ratio of reads operations to write operations will be 1000 to 1, with the same data being accessed frequently. What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?

Q2: You are creating a DynamoDB table with the following attributes:

Difference between local and global indexes in DynamoDB

Q3: When referencing the remaining time left for a Lambda function to run within the function’s code you would use:

Q4: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?

Q5: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:

Q6: A Lambda deployment package contains:

Q7: You are attempting to SSH into an EC2 instance that is located in a public subnet. However, you are currently receiving a timeout error trying to connect. What could be a possible cause of this connection issue?

Q8: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?

Q9: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?

Q10: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:

Q11: You’re writing a script with an AWS SDK that uses the AWS API Actions and want to create AMIs for non-EBS backed AMIs for you. Which API call should occurs in the final process of creating an AMI?

Q12: When dealing with session state in EC2-based applications using Elastic load balancers which option is generally thought of as the best practice for managing user sessions?

Q13: Which API call would best be used to describe an Amazon Machine Image?

Q14: What is one key difference between an Amazon EBS-backed and an instance-store backed instance?

Q17: EC2 instances are launched from Amazon Machine Images (AMIs). A given public AMI:

Q18: Which of the following statements is true about the Elastic File System (EFS)?

Q19: IAM Policies, at a minimum, contain what elements?

Q20: What are the main benefits of IAM groups?

Q21: What are benefits of using AWS STS?

Q22: What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?

Q23: A Developer has been asked to create an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment for a production web application which needs to handle thousands of requests. Currently the dev environment is running on a t1 micro instance. How can the Developer change the EC2 instance type to m4.large?

Q24: What statements are true about Availability Zones (AZs) and Regions?

Q25: An AWS Region contains:

Q26: Which read request in DynamoDB returns a response with the most up-to-date data, reflecting the updates from all prior write operations that were successful?

Q27: You’ ve been asked to move an existing development environment on the AWS Cloud. This environment consists mainly of Docker based containers. You need to ensure that minimum effort is taken during the migration process. Which of the following step would you consider for this requirement?

Q29: A security system monitors 600 cameras, saving image metadata every 1 minute to an Amazon DynamoDb table. Each sample involves 1kb of data, and the data writes are evenly distributed over time. How much write throughput is required for the target table?

Q30: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?

Q31: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:

Q32: A Lambda deployment package contains:

Q33: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?

Q34: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?

Q30: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:

Answer:

Answer:

Q32: A developer is writing an application that will run on Ec2 instances and read messages from SQS queue. The nessages will arrive every 15-60 seconds. How should the Developer efficiently query the queue for new messages?

Q33: You are using AWS SAM to define a Lambda function and configure CodeDeploy to manage deployment patterns. With new Lambda function working as per expectation which of the following will shift traffic from original Lambda function to new Lambda function in the shortest time frame?

Q34: You are using AWS SAM templates to deploy a serverless application. Which of the following resource will embed application from Amazon S3 buckets?

Q35: You are using AWS Envelope Encryption for encrypting all sensitive data. Which of the followings is True with regards to Envelope Encryption?

Q36: You are developing an application that will be comprised of the following architecture –

How will you ensure that the premium customers videos are given more preference?

Q37: You are developing an application that will interact with a DynamoDB table. The table is going to take in a lot of read and write operations. Which of the following would be the ideal partition key for the DynamoDB table to ensure ideal performance?

Q38: A developer is making use of AWS services to develop an application. He has been asked to develop the application in a manner to compensate any network delays. Which of the following two mechanisms should he implement in the application?

Q40: You are in charge of deploying an application that will be hosted on an EC2 Instance and sit behind an Elastic Load balancer. You have been requested to monitor the incoming connections to the Elastic Load Balancer. Which of the below options can suffice this requirement?

Answer:

Q44: You’ve been instructed to develop a mobile application that will make use of AWS services. You need to decide on a data store to store the user sessions. Which of the following would be an ideal data store for session management?

Answer:

Q46: An application has been making use of AWS DynamoDB for its back-end data store. The size of the table has now grown to 20 GB , and the scans on the table are causing throttling errors. Which of the following should now be implemented to avoid such errors?

Q47: Which of the following is correct way of passing a stage variable to an HTTP URL ? (Select TWO.)

Q48: Your company is planning on creating new development environments in AWS. They want to make use of their existing Chef recipes which they use for their on-premise configuration for servers in AWS. Which of the following service would be ideal to use in this regard?

Q50: Your application currently makes use of AWS Cognito for managing user identities. You want to analyze the information that is stored in AWS Cognito for your application. Which of the following features of AWS Cognito should you use for this purpose?

Q51: You’ve developed a set of scripts using AWS Lambda. These scripts need to access EC2 Instances in a VPC. Which of the following needs to be done to ensure that the AWS Lambda function can access the resources in the VPC. Choose 2 answers from the options given below

Q53: Company B is writing 10 items to the Dynamo DB table every second. Each item is 15.5Kb in size. What would be the required provisioned write throughput for best performance? Choose the correct answer from the options below.

Q54: Which AWS Service can be used to automatically install your application code onto EC2, on premises systems and Lambda?

Q55: Which AWS service can be used to compile source code, run tests and package code?

Q56: How can your prevent CloudFormation from deleting your entire stack on failure? (Choose 2)

Q57: Which of the following practices allows multiple developers working on the same application to merge code changes frequently, without impacting each other and enables the identification of bugs early on in the release process?

Q58: When deploying application code to EC2, the AppSpec file can be written in which language?

Q59: Part of your CloudFormation deployment fails due to a mis-configuration, by defaukt what will happen?

Q60: You want to receive an email whenever a user pushes code to CodeCommit repository, how can you configure this?

Q61: Which AWS service can be used to centrally store and version control your application source code, binaries and libraries

Q62: You are using CloudFormation to create a new S3 bucket, which of the following sections would you use to define the properties of your bucket?

Q63: You are deploying a number of EC2 and RDS instances using CloudFormation. Which section of the CloudFormation template would you use to define these?

Q64: Which AWS service can be used to fully automate your entire release process?

Q65: You want to use the output of your CloudFormation stack as input to another CloudFormation stack. Which sections of the CloudFormation template would you use to help you configure this?

Q66: You have some code located in an S3 bucket that you want to reference in your CloudFormation template. Which section of the template can you use to define this?

Q67: You are deploying an application to a number of Ec2 instances using CodeDeploy. What is the name of the file used to specify source files and lifecycle hooks?

Q68: Which of the following approaches allows you to re-use pieces of CloudFormation code in multiple templates, for common use cases like provisioning a load balancer or web server?

Q69: In the CodeDeploy AppSpec file, what are hooks used for?

Q70: Which command can you use to encrypt a plain text file using CMK?

Q71:

Q72: Which of the following is an encrypted key used by KMS to encrypt your data

Q73: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose 2)

Q74: Which of the following statements is correct in relation to kMS/ (Choose 2)

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Q1: A developer is writing an application that will store data in a DynamoDB table. The ratio of reads operations to write operations will be 1000 to 1, with the same data being accessed frequently.
What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?

Q67: You are deploying an application to a number of Ec2 instances using CodeDeploy. What is the name of the file
used to specify source files and lifecycle hooks?