AWS Solution Architect Associate Certification Exam Prep: Facts and Summaries, Questions and Answers Dump

AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam Questions and Answers Dump

AWS Solution Architect Associate Certification Exam facts and summaries, AWS Solution Architect Associate Top 65 Questions and Answers Dump

Definition 1: Solution architecture is a practice of defining and describing an architecture of a system delivered in context of a specific solution and as such it may encompass description of an entire system or only its specific parts. Definition of a solution architecture is typically led by a solution architect.

Definition 2: The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate examination is intended for individuals who perform a solutions architect role and have one or more years of hands-on experience designing available, cost-efficient, fault-tolerant, and scalable distributed systems on AWS.

AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam Facts and Summaries

  1. This exam validates an examinee’s ability to effectively demonstrate knowledge of how to architect and deploy secure and robust applications on AWS technologies. It validates an examinee’s ability to:
    • Define a solution using architectural design principles based on customer requirements.
    • Provide implementation guidance based on best practices to the organization throughout the lifecycle of the project.
  2. There are two types of questions on the examination:
    • Multiple-choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors).
    • Multiple-response: Has two correct responses out of five options.

    Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that an examinee with incomplete knowledge or skill would likely choose. However, they are generally plausible responses that fit in the content area defined by the test objective. Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing.  

  3. The table below lists the main content domains and their weightings:
  4. Domain 1: Design Resilient Architectures
    • Choose reliable/resilient storage.
    • Determine how to design decoupling mechanisms using AWS services.
    • Determine how to design a multi-tier architecture solution.
    • Determine how to design high availability and/or fault tolerant architectures
  5. Domain 2: Define Performant Architectures
    • Choose performant storage and databases.
    • Apply caching to improve performance.
    • Design solutions for elasticity and scalability.
  6. Domain 3: Specify Secure Applications and Architectures.
    • Determine how to secure application tiers.
    • Determine how to secure data.
    • Define the networking infrastructure for a single VPC application.
  7.  Domain 4: Design Cost-Optimized Architectures
    • Determine how to design cost-optimized storage.
    • Determine how to design cost-optimized compute.
  8. Domain 5: Define Operationally-Excellent Architectures
    • Choose design features in solutions that enable operational excellence.
  9. Take an AWS Training Class
  10. Study AWS Whitepapers and FAQs: AWS Well-Architected webpage (various whitepapers linked)
  11. If you are running an application in a production environment and must add a new EBS volume with data from a snapshot, what could you do to avoid degraded performance during the volume’s first use?
    Initialize the data by reading each storage block on the volume.
    Volumes created from an EBS snapshot must be initialized. Initializing occurs the first time a storage block on the volume is read, and the performance impact can be impacted by up to 50%. You can avoid this impact in production environments by pre-warming the volume by reading all of the blocks.
  12. If you are running a legacy application that has hard-coded static IP addresses and it is running on an EC2 instance; what is the best failover solution that allows you to keep the same IP address on a new instance?
    Elastic IP addresses (EIPs) are designed to be attached/detached and moved from one EC2 instance to another. They are a great solution for keeping a static IP address and moving it to a new instance if the current instance fails. This will reduce or eliminate any downtime uses may experience.
  13. Which feature of Intel processors help to encrypt data without significant impact on performance?
    AES-NI
  14. You can mount to EFS from which two of the following?
    • On-prem servers running Linux
    • EC2 instances running Linux

    EFS is not compatible with Windows operating systems.

Top
Reference: AWS SOlution Architect Associate Exam Prep




AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam Prep Questions and Answers Dump

Q0: A company is developing a highly available web application using stateless web servers. Which services are suitable for storing session state data? (Select TWO.)

  • A. CloudWatch
  • B. DynamoDB
  • C. Elastic Load Balancing
  • D. ElastiCache
  • E. Storage Gateway

B. and D.

Reference: AWS Session management

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Q1: A Solutions Architect is designing a critical business application with a relational database that runs on an EC2 instance. It requires a single EBS volume that can support up to 16,000 IOPS.
Which Amazon EBS volume type can meet the performance requirements of this application?

  • A. EBS Provisioned IOPS SSD
  • B. EBS Throughput Optimized HDD
  • C. EBS General Purpose SSD
  • D. EBS Cold HDD

A.
EBS Provisioned IOPS SSD provides sustained performance for mission-critical low-latency workloads. EBS General Purpose SSD can provide bursts of performance up to 3,000 IOPS and have a maximum baseline performance of 10,000 IOPS for volume sizes greater than 3.3 TB. The 2 HDD options are lower cost, high throughput volumes.

Reference: Amazon EBS Performance Tips

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Q2: An application running on EC2 instances processes sensitive information stored on Amazon S3. The information is accessed over the Internet. The security team is concerned that the Internet connectivity to Amazon S3 is a security risk.
Which solution will resolve the security concern?

  • A. Access the data through an Internet Gateway.
  • B. Access the data through a VPN connection.
  • C. Access the data through a NAT Gateway.
  • D.Access the data through a VPC endpoint for Amazon S3

D.
VPC endpoints for Amazon S3 provide secure connections to S3 buckets that do not require a gateway or NAT instances. NAT Gateways and Internet Gateways still route traffic over the Internet to the public endpoint for Amazon S3. There is no way to connect to Amazon S3 via VPN.

Reference: S3 VPC Endpoints

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Q3: An organization is building an Amazon Redshift cluster in their shared services VPC. The cluster will host sensitive data.
How can the organization control which networks can access the cluster?

  • A. Run the cluster in a different VPC and connect through VPC peering.
  • B.Create a database user inside the Amazon Redshift cluster only for users on the network.
  • C. Define a cluster security group for the cluster that allows access from the allowed networks.
  • D. Only allow access to networks that connect with the shared services network via VPN.

C
A security group can grant access to traffic from the allowed networks via the CIDR range for each network. VPC peering and VPN are connectivity services and cannot control traffic for security. Amazon Redshift user accounts address authentication and authorization at the user level and have no control over network traffic.

Reference: AWS Security best practice

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Q4: A web application allows customers to upload orders to an S3 bucket. The resulting Amazon S3 events trigger a Lambda function that inserts a message to an SQS queue. A single EC2 instance reads messages from the queue, processes them, and stores them in an DynamoDB table partitioned by unique order ID. Next month traffic is expected to increase by a factor of 10 and a Solutions Architect is reviewing the architecture for possible scaling problems.
Which component is MOST likely to need re-architecting to be able to scale to accommodate the new traffic?

  • A. Lambda function
  • B. SQS queue
  • C. EC2 instance
  • D.DynamoDB table

C.
A single EC2 instance will not scale and is a single point of failure in the architecture. A much better solution would be to have EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group across 2 availability zones read messages from the queue. The other responses are all managed services that can be configured to scale or will scale automatically.

Reference: Eliminating Single Points of Failures on AWS Cloud

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Q5: An application requires a highly available relational database with an initial storage capacity of 8 TB. The database will grow by 8 GB every day. To support expected traffic, at least eight read replicas will be required to handle database reads.
Which option will meet these requirements?

  • A. DynamoDB
  • B. Amazon S3
  • C. Amazon Aurora
  • D. Amazon Redshift

C.
Amazon Aurora is a relational database that will automatically scale to accommodate data growth. Amazon Redshift does not support read replicas and will not automatically scale. DynamoDB is a NoSQL service, not a relational database. Amazon S3 is object storage, not a relational database.

Reference: Replication with Amazon Aurora

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Q6: How can you improve the performance of EFS?

  • A. Use an instance-store backed EC2 instance.
  • B. Provision more throughput than is required.
  • C. Divide your files system into multiple smaller file systems.
  • D. Provision higher IOPs for your EFS.

B.
Amazon EFS now allows you to instantly provision the throughput required for your applications independent of the amount of data stored in your file system. This allows you to optimize throughput for your application’s performance needs.

Reference: Amazon EFS Performance

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Q7:
If you are designing an application that requires fast (10 – 25Gbps), low-latency connections between EC2 instances, what EC2 feature should you use?

  • A. Snapshots
  • B. Instance store volumes
  • C. Placement groups
  • D. IOPS provisioned instances.

C.
Placement groups are a clustering of EC2 instances in one Availability Zone with fast (up to 25Gbps) connections between them. This feature is used for applications that need extremely low-latency connections between instances.

Reference: Placement Groups

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Q8: A Solutions Architect is designing an online shopping application running in a VPC on EC2 instances
behind an ELB Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. The application tier must read and write data to a customer managed
database cluster. There should be no access to the database from the Internet, but the cluster must be able to obtain software patches from the Internet.

 

Which VPC design meets these requirements?

  • A. Public subnets for both the application tier and the database cluster
  • B. Public subnets for the application tier, and private subnets for the database cluster
  • C. Public subnets for the application tier and NAT Gateway, and private subnets for the database cluster
  • D. Public subnets for the application tier, and private subnets for the database cluster and NAT Gateway

Answer: C.
The online application must be in public subnets to allow access from clients’ browsers. The database cluster must be in private subnets to meet the requirement that there be no access from the Internet.
A NAT Gateway is required to give the database cluster the ability to download patches from the Internet. NAT Gateways must be deployed in public subnets.

Reference: Public and Private Subnets

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Q9: What command should you run on a running instance if you want to view its user data (that is used at launch)?

  • A. curl http://254.169.254.169/latest/user-data
  • B. curl http://localhost/latest/meta-data/bootstrap
  • C. curl http://localhost/latest/user-data
  • D. curl http://169.254.169.254/latest/user-data

Answer: C.
Retrieve Instance User Data
To retrieve user data from within a running instance, use the following URI:
http://169.254.169.254/latest/user-data

Reference: Instance Metadata and User Data

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Q10: A company is developing a highly available web application using stateless web servers. Which
services are suitable for storing session state data? (Select TWO.)

  • A. CloudWatch
  • B. DynamoDB
  • C. Elastic Load Balancing
  • D. ElastiCache
  • E. Storage Gateway

Answer: B. and D.
Both DynamoDB and ElastiCache provide high performance storage of key-value pairs.
CloudWatch and ELB are not storage services. Storage Gateway is a storage service, but it is a hybrid
Storage service that enables on-premises applications to use cloud storage.

A stateful web service will keep track of the “state” of a client’s connection and data over several requests. So for example, the client might login, select a users account data, update their address, attach a photo, and change the status flag, then disconnect.

In a stateless web service, the server doesn’t keep any information from one request to the next. The client needs to do it’s work in a series of simple transactions, and the client has to keep track of what happens between requests. So in the above example, the client needs to do each operation separately: connect and update the address, disconnect. Connect and attach the photo, disconnect. Connect and change the status flag, disconnect.

A stateless web service is much simpler to implement, and can handle greater volume of clients.

Reference: Stateful & Stateless web service

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Other AWS Facts and Summaries and Questions/Answers Dump

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Preparation: Questions and Answers Dump

Welcome to AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Preparation: Definition and Objectives, Top 80 Questions and Answers Dump, White papers, Courses, Labs and Training Materials, Exam info and details, References, Jobs, Others AWS Certificates




What is the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam?

The AWS Cloud Practitioner Exam is an introduction to AWS services and the intention is to examine the candidates ability to define what the AWS cloud is and its global infrastructure. It provides an overview of AWS core services security aspects, pricing and support services. The main objective is to provide an overall understanding about the Amazon Web Services Cloud platform. The course helps you get the conceptual understanding of the AWS and can help you know about the basics of AWS and cloud computing, including the services, cases and benefits.

To succeed with the real exam, do not memorize the answers below. It is very important that you understand why a question is right or wrong and the concepts behind it by carefully reading the reference documents in the answers.

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AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Prep Questions and Answers

Which of the following service is most useful when a Disaster Recovery method is triggered in AWS.

  • A. Amazon Route 53
  • B. Amazon SNS
  • C. Amazon SQS
  • D. Amazon Inspector

Answer:

A. Route 53 is a domain name system service by AWS. When a Disaster does occur , it can be easy to switch to secondary sites using the Route53 service.
Amazon Route 53 is a highly available and scalable cloud Domain Name System (DNS) web service. It is designed to give developers and businesses an extremely reliable and cost effective way to route end users to Internet applications by translating names like www.example.com into the numeric IP addresses like 192.0.2.1 that
computers use to connect to each other. Amazon Route 53 is fully compliant with IPv6 as well.

Reference: AWS Route 53/

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Which of the following disaster recovery deployment mechanisms that has the highest downtime

  • A. Pilot light
  • B. Warm standby
  • C. Multi Site
  • D. Backup and Restore

Answer:

D. The below snapshot from the AWS Documentation shows the spectrum of the Disaster recovery methods. If you go to the further end of the spectrum you have the least time for downtime for the users.

AWS Disaster Recovery Techniques
AWS Disaster Recovery Techniques

Reference: AWS Route 53/




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Your company is planning to host resources in the AWS Cloud. They want to use services which can be used to decouple resources hosted on the cloud. Which of the following services can help fulfil this requirement?

  • A. AWS EBS Volumes
  • B. AWS EBS Snapshots
  • C. AWS Glacier
  • D. AWS SQS

Answer:

D. AWS SQS: Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) offers a reliable, highly-scalable hosted queue for storing messages as they travel between applications or microservices. It moves data between distributed application components and helps you decouple these components.

Reference: AWS Simple Queue Service Developer Guive

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If you have a set of frequently accessed files that are used on a daily basis, what S3 storage class should you store them in?

  • A. Infrequent Access
  • B. Fast Access
  • C. Reduced Redundancy
  • D. Standard

Answer:

D. Standard: The Standard storage class should be used for files that you access on a daily or very frequent basis.

Reference: AWS storage-classes/

What is the availability and durability rating of S3 Standard Storage Class?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. 99.999999999% Durability and 99.99% Availability
  • B. 99.999999999% Availability and 99.90% Durability
  • C. 99.999999999% Durability and 99.00% Availability
  • D. 99.999999999% Availability and 99.99% Durability

Answer:

A. 99.999999999% Durability and 99.99% Availability
S3 Standard Storage class has a rating of 99.999999999% durability (referred to as 11 nines) and 99.99% availability.

Reference: AWS storage classes/




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What AWS database is primarily used to analyze data using standard SQL formatting with compatibility for your existing business intelligence tools

  • A. Redshift
  • B. RDS
  • C. DynamoDB
  • D. ElastiCache

Answer:

A. Redshift is a database offering that is fully-managed and used for data warehousing and analytics, including compatibility with existing business intelligence tools.

Reference: AWS redshift/

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What are the benefits of DynamoDB?

Choose the 3 correct answers:

  • A. Single-digit millisecond latency.
  • B. Supports multiple known NoSQL database engines like MariaDB and Oracle NoSQL.
  • C. Supports both document and key-value store data models.
  • D. Automatic scaling of throughput capacity.

Answer:

A. C. D. DynamoDB does not use/support other NoSQL database engines. You only have access to use DynamoDB’s built-in engine.

Reference: AWS DynamoDB




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Which of the following are the benefits of AWS Organizations?

Choose the 2 correct answers:

  • A. Analyze cost before migrating to AWS.
  • B. Centrally manage access polices across multiple AWS accounts.
  • C. Automate AWS account creation and management.
  • D. Provide technical help (by AWS) for issues in your AWS account.

Answer:

B. and C.:
CENTRALLY MANAGE POLICIES ACROSS MULTIPLE AWS ACCOUNTS
AUTOMATE AWS ACCOUNT CREATION AND MANAGEMENT
CONTROL ACCESS TO AWS SERVICES
CONSOLIDATE BILLING ACROSS MULTIPLE AWS ACCOUNTS

Reference: AWS organizations/

There is a requirement hosting a set of servers in the Cloud for a short period of 3 months. Which of the following types of instances should be chosen to be cost effective.

  • A. Spot Instances
  • B. On-Demand
  • C. No Upfront costs Reserved
  • D. Partial Upfront costs Reserved

Answer:

B. Since the requirement is just for 3 months, then the best cost effective option is to use On-Demand Instances.

Reference: AWS pricing on-demand/

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Which of the following is not a disaster recovery deployment technique.

  • A. Pilot light
  • B. Warm standby
  • C. Single Site
  • D. Multi-Site

Answer:

C. The following figure shows a spectrum for the four scenarios, arranged by how quickly a system can be available to users after a DR event.

AWS Disaster Recovery Techniques
AWS Disaster Recovery Techniques

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/new-whitepaper-use-aws-for-disaster-recovery/

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Which of the following are attributes to the costing for using the Simple Storage Service. Choose 2 answers from the options given below

  • A. The storage class used for the objects stored.
  • B. Number of S3 buckets.
  • C. The total size in gigabytes of all objects stored.
  • D. Using encryption in S3

Answer:

A. and C: Below is a snapshot of the costing calculator for AWS S3.

S3 storage cost estimator
Amazon S3 is storage for the Internet. It is designed to make web-scale computing easier for developers.

Reference: http://calculator.s3.amazonaws.com/index.html ; S3 storage classes

What endpoints are possible to send messages to with Simple Notification Service?

Choose the 3 correct answers:

  • A. SQS
  • B. SMS
  • C. FTP
  • D. Lambda

Answer:

A. B. D. SMS, Lambda, SQS



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What service helps you to aggregate logs from your EC2 instance? Choose one answer from the options below:

  • A. SQS
  • B. S3
  • C. Cloudtrail
  • D. Cloudwatch Logs

Answer:

D. You can use Amazon CloudWatch Logs to monitor, store, and access your log files from Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances, AWS CloudTrail, and other sources. You can then retrieve the associated log data from CloudWatch Log.

Reference: AWS CloudWatch Logs

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A company is deploying a new two-tier web application in AWS. The company wants to store their most frequently used data so that the response time for the application is improved. Which AWS service provides the solution for the company’s requirements?

  • A. MySQL Installed on two Amazon EC2 Instances in a single Availability Zone
  • B. Amazon RDS for MySQL with Multi-AZ
  • C. Amazon ElastiCache
  • D. Amazon DynamoDB

Answer:

C. Amazon ElastiCache is a web service that makes it easy to deploy, operate, and scale an in-memory data store or cache in the cloud. The service improves the performance of web applications by allowing you to retrieve information from fast, managed, in-memory data stores, instead of relying entirely on slower disk-based databases.

Reference: AWS elasticache/

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You have a distributed application that periodically processes large volumes of data across multiple Amazon EC2 Instances. The application is designed to recover gracefully from Amazon EC2 instance failures. You are required to accomplish this task in the most cost-effective way. Which of the following will meet
your requirements?

    • A. Spot Instances
    • B. Reserved Instances
    • C. Dedicated Instances

On-Demand Instances

Answer:

A. When you think of cost effectiveness, you can either have to choose Spot or Reserved instances. Now when you have a regular processing job, the best is to use spot instances and since your application is designed recover gracefully from Amazon EC2 instance failures, then even if you lose the Spot instance , there is no issue because your application can recover.

Reference: AWS EC2 spot instances

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Which of the following features is associated with a Subnet in a VPC to protect against Incoming traffic requests?

  • A. AWS Inspector
  • B. Subnet Groups
  • C. Security Groups
  • D. NACL

Answer:

D. A network access control list (ACL) is an optional layer of security for your VPC that acts as a firewall for controlling traffic in and out of one or more subnets. You might set up network ACLs with rules similar to your security groups in order to add an additional layer of security to your VPC.

Reference: AWS VPC ACLs

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A company is deploying a two-tier, highly available web application to AWS. Which service provides durable storage for static content while utilizing Overall CPU resources for the web tier?

  • A. Amazon EBC volume.
  • B. Amazon S3
  • C. Amazon EC2 instance store
  • D. Amazon RDS instance

Answer:

B. Amazon S3 is the default storage service that should be considered for companies. It provides durable storage for all static content.

Reference: S3 faqs

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What are characteristics of Amazon S3?
Choose 2 answers from the options given below.

  • A. S3 allows you to store objects of virtually unlimited size.
  • B. S3 allows you to store unlimited amounts of data.
  • C. S3 should be used to host relational database.
  • D. Objects are directly accessible via a URL.

Answer:

B. and D.: Each object does have a limitation in S3, but you can store virtually unlimited amounts of data. Also each object gets a directly accessible URL

Reference: AWS s3 faqs




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When working on the costing for on-demand EC2 instances , which are the following are attributes which determine the costing of the EC2 Instance. Choose 3 answers from the options given below

  • A. Instance Type
  • B. AMI Type
  • C. Region
  • D. Edge location

Answer:

A. B. C. : See components making up the pricing below.

AWS AMI Pricing
AWS AMI Pricing

Reference: AWS ec2 pricing on-demand/

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You have a mission-critical application which must be globally available at all times. If this is the case, which of the below deployment mechanisms would you employ

  • A. Deployment to multiple edge locations
  • B. Deployment to multiple Availability Zones
  • D. Deployment to multiple Data Centers
  • D. Deployment to multiple Regions

Answer:

D. Regions represent different geographic locations and it is best to host your application across multiple regions for disaster recovery.

Reference: AWS regions availability zones




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Which of the following are right principles when designing cloud based systems. Choose 2 answers from the options below

  • A. Build Tightly-coupled components
  • B. Build loosely-coupled components
  • C. Assume everything will fail
  • D. Use as many services as possible

Answer:

B. and C. Always build components which are loosely coupled. This is so that even if one component does fail, the entire system does not fail. Also if you build with the assumption that everything will fail, then you will ensure that the right measures are taken to build a highly available and fault tolerant system.

Reference: AWS Well architected networks

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You have 2 accounts in your AWS account. One for the Dev and the other for QA. All are part of
consolidated billing. The master account has purchase 3 reserved instances. The Dev department is currently using 2 reserved instances. The QA team is planning on using 3 instances which of the same instance type. What is the pricing tier of the instances that can be used by the QA Team?

  • A. No Reserved and 3 on-demand
  • B. One Reserved and 2 on-demand
  • C. Two Reserved and 1 on-demand
  • D. Three Reserved and no on-demand

Answer:

B. Since all are a part of consolidating billing, the pricing of reserved instances can be shared by All. And since 2 are already used by the Dev team , another one can be used by the QA team. The rest of the instances can be on-demand instances.

Reference: AWS ec2 pricing reserved instances/

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Which one of the following features is normally present in all of AWS Support plans

  • A. 24/7 access to Customer Service
  • B. Access to all features in the Trusted Advisor
  • C. A technical Account Manager
  • D. A dedicated support person

Answer:

A.

AWS Support plans
AWS Support plans

Reference: AWS premium support compare plans

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Which of the following storage mechanisms can be used to store messages effectively which can be used across distributed systems?

  • A. Amazon Glacier
  • B. Amazon EBS Volumes
  • C. Amazon EBS Snapshots
  • D. Amazon SQS

Answer:

D. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) offers a reliable, highly-scalable hosted queue for storing messages as they travel between applications or microservices. It moves data between distributed application components and helps you decouple these components.

Reference: AWS Simple Queue Service




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You are exploring what services AWS has off-hand. You have a large number of data sets that need to be processed. Which of the following services can help fulfil this requirement.

  • A. EMR
  • B. S3
  • C. Glacier
  • D. Storage Gateway

Answer:

A. Amazon EMR helps you analyze and process vast amounts of data by distributing the computational work across a cluster of virtual servers running in the AWS Cloud. The cluster is managed using an open-source framework called Hadoop. Amazon EMR lets you focus on crunching or analyzing your data without having to worry about time-consuming setup, management, and tuning of Hadoop clusters or the compute capacity they rely on.

Reference: AWS Emr




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Which of the following services allows you to analyze EC2 Instances against pre-defined security templates to check for vulnerabilities

  • A. AWS Trusted Advisor
  • B. AWS Inspector
  • C. AWS WAF
  • D. AWS Shield

Answer:

B. Amazon Inspector enables you to analyze the behaviour of your AWS resources and helps you to identify potential security issues. Using Amazon Inspector, you can define a collection of AWS resources that you want to include in an assessment target. You can then create an assessment template and launch a security
assessment run of this target.

Reference: AWS inspector introduction

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Your company is planning to offload some of the batch processing workloads on to AWS. These jobs can be interrupted and resumed at any time. Which of the following instance types would be the most cost effective to use for this purpose.

  • A. On-Demand
  • B. Spot
  • C. Full Upfront Reserved
  • D. Partial Upfront Reserved

Answer:

B. Spot Instances are a cost-effective choice if you can be flexible about when your applications run and if your applications can be interrupted. For example, Spot Instances are well-suited for data analysis, batch jobs, background processing, and optional tasks

Reference: AWS Spot Instances




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Which of the following is not a category recommendation given by the AWS Trusted Advisor?

  • A. Security
  • B. High Availability
  • C. Performance
  • D. Fault tolerance

Answer:

B. AWS Trusted advisor

Reference: AWS Trust Advisor




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Which of the below cannot be used to get data onto Amazon Glacier.

  • A. AWS Glacier API
  • B. AWS Console
  • C. AWS Glacier SDK
  • D. AWS S3 Lifecycle policies

Answer:

B. Note that the AWS Console cannot be used to upload data onto Glacier. The console can only be used to create a Glacier vault which can be used to upload the data.

Reference: Uploading an archive in AWS

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Which of the following from AWS can be used to transfer petabytes of data from on-premise locations to the AWS Cloud.

  • A. AWS Import/Export
  • B. AWS EC2
  • C. AWS Snowball
  • D. AWS Transfer

Answer:

C. Snowball is a petabyte-scale data transport solution that uses secure appliances to transfer large amounts of data& into and out of the AWS cloud. Using Snowball addresses common challenges with large-scale data transfers including high network costs, long transfer times, and security concerns. Transferring data with Snowball is simple, fast, secure, and can be as little as one-fifth the cost of high-speed Internet.

Reference: AWS snowball




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Which of the following services allows you to analyze EC2 Instances against pre-defined security templates to check for vulnerabilities

  • A. AWS Trusted Advisor
  • B. AWS Inspector
  • C. AWS WAF
  • D. AWS Shield

Answer:

B. Amazon Inspector enables you to analyze the behavior of your AWS resources and helps you to identify potential security issues. Using Amazon Inspector, you can define a collection of AWS resources that you want to include in an assessment target. You can then create an assessment template and launch a security
assessment run of this target.

Reference: AWS Inspector

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Your company wants to move an existing Oracle database to the AWS Cloud. Which of the following services can help facilitate this move.

  • A. AWS Database Migration Service
  • B. AWS VM Migration Service
  • C. AWS Inspector
  • D. AWS Trusted Advisor

Answer:

A. AWS Database Migration Service helps you migrate databases to AWS quickly and securely. The source database remains fully operational during the migration, minimizing downtime to applications that rely on the database. The AWS Database Migration Service can migrate your data to and from most widely used commercial and open source databases.

Reference: AWS dms

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Which of the following features of AWS RDS allows for offloading reads of the database.

  • A. Cross region replication
  • B. Creating Read Replica’s
  • C. Using snapshots
  • D. Using Multi-AZ feature

Answer:

B. You can reduce the load on your source DB Instance by routing read queries from your applications to the read replica. Read replicas allow you to elastically scale out beyond the capacity constraints of a single DB instance for read-heavy database workloads.

Reference: AWS read replicas

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Which of the following does AWS perform on its behalf for EBS volumes to make it less prone to failure?

  • A. Replication of the volume across Availability Zones
  • B. Replication of the volume in the same Availability Zone
  • C. Replication of the volume across Regions
  • D. Replication of the volume across Edge locations

Answer:

B. When you create an EBS volume in an Availability Zone, it is automatically replicated within that zone to prevent data loss due to failure of any single hardware component

Reference: AWS EBS Volumes




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Your company is planning to host a large ecommerce application on the AWS Cloud. One of their major concerns is Internet attacks such as DDos attacks. Which of the following services can help mitigate this concern. Choose 2 answers from the options given below

  • A. A. Cloudfront
  • B. AWS Shield
  • C. C. AWS EC2
  • D. AWS Config

Answer:

A. and B. : One of the first techniques to mitigate DDoS attacks is to minimize the surface area that can be attacked thereby limiting the options for attackers and allowing you to build protections in a single place. We want to ensure that we do not expose our application or resources to ports, protocols or applications from where they do not expect any communication. Thus, minimizing the possible points of attack and letting us concentrate our mitigation efforts. In some cases, you can do this by placing your computation resources behind Content Distribution
Networks (CDNs), Load Balancers and restricting direct Internet traffic to certain parts of your infrastructure
like your database servers. In other cases, you can use firewalls or Access Control Lists (ACLs) to control what traffic reaches your applications.

Reference: ddos attack protection/




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Which of the following are 2 ways that AWS allows to link accounts

  • A. Consolidating billing
  • B. AWS Organizations
  • C. Cost Explorer
  • D. IAM

Answer:

A. and B. : You can use the consolidated billing feature in AWS Organizations to consolidate payment for multiple AWS accounts or multiple AISPL accounts. With consolidated billing, you can see a combined view of AWS charges incurred by all of your accounts. You also can get a cost report for each member account that is associated with your master account. Consolidated billing is offered at no additional charge.

Reference: AWS Consolidated billing

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Which of the following helps in DDos protection. Choose 2 answers from the options given below

  • A. Cloudfront
  • B. AWS Shield
  • C. AWS EC2
  • D. AWS Config

Answer:

A. and B. : One of the first techniques to mitigate DDoS attacks is to minimize the surface area that can be attacked thereby limiting the options for attackers and allowing you to build protections in a single place. We want to ensure that we do not expose our application or resources to ports, protocols or applications from where they do not expect any communication. Thus, minimizing the possible points of attack and letting us concentrate our mitigation efforts. In some cases, you can do this by placing your computation resources behind; Content Distribution Networks (CDNs), Load Balancers and restricting direct Internet traffic to certain parts of your infrastructure like your database servers. In other cases, you can use firewalls or Access Control Lists (ACLs) to control what traffic reaches your applications.

Reference: AWS shield – ddos attack protection/




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Which of the following can be used to call AWS services from programming languages

  • A. AWS SDK
  • B. AWS Console
  • C. AWS CLI
  • D. AWS IAM

Answer:

AWS SDK can be plugged in for various programming languages. Using the SDK you can then call the required AWS services.

Reference: AWS tools

A company wants to host a self-managed database in AWS. How would you ideally implement this solution?

  • A. Using the AWS DynamoDB service
  • B. Using the AWS RDS service
  • C. Hosting a database on an EC2 Instance
  • D. Using the Amazon Aurora service

Answer:

C. If you want a self-managed database, that means you want complete control over the database engine and the underlying infrastructure. In such a case you need to host the database on an EC2 Instance

Reference: AWS ec2

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When creating security groups, which of the following is a responsibility of the customer. Choose 2 answers from the options given below.

  • A. Giving a name and description for the security group
  • B. Defining the rules as per the customer requirements.
  • C. Ensure the rules are applied immediately
  • D. Ensure the security groups are linked to the Elastic Network interface

Answer:

A. and B. : When you define security rules for EC2 Instances, you give a name, description and write the rules for the security group

Reference: AWS using Network Security Groups




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There is a requirement to host a database server for a minimum period of one year. Which of the following would result in the least cost?

  • A. Spot Instances
  • B. On-Demand
  • C. No Upfront costs Reserved
  • D. Partial Upfront costs Reserved

Answer:

D. : If the database is going to be used for a minimum of one year at least , then it is better to get Reserved Instances. You can save on costs , and if you use a partial upfront options , you can get a better discount

Reference: AWS Reserved Instances

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which of the below can be used to import data into Amazon Glacier?
Choose 3 answers from the options given below:

  • A. AWS Glacier API
  • B. AWS Console
  • C. AWS Glacier SDK
  • D. AWS S3 Lifecycle policies

Answer:

A. C. and D. : The AWS Console cannot be used to upload data onto Glacier. The console can only be used to create a Glacier vault which can be used to upload the data.

Reference: Uploading an archive in AWS

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Which of the following can be used to secure EC2 Instances hosted in AWS. Choose 2 answers

  • A. Usage of Security Groups
  • B. Usage of AMI’s
  • C. Usage of Network Access Control Lists
  • D. Usage of the Internet gateway

Answer:

A and C: Security groups acts as a virtual firewall for your instance to control inbound and outbound traffic. Network access control list (ACL) is an optional layer of security for your VPC that acts as a firewall for
controlling traffic in and out of one or more subnets.

Reference: VPC Security Groups and Network Access Control List




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Which of the following can be used to host virtual servers on AWS

  • A. AWS IAM
  • B. AWS Server
  • C. AWS EC2
  • D. AWS Regions

Answer:

C. AWS EC2

Reference: AWS ec2




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You plan to deploy an application on AWS. This application needs to be PCI Compliant. Which of the below steps are needed to ensure the compliance? Choose 2 answers from the below list:

  • A. Choose AWS services which are PCI Compliant
  • B. Ensure the right steps are taken during application development for PCI Compliance
  • C. Encure the AWS Services are made PCI Compliant
  • D. Do an audit after the deployment of the application for PCI Compliance.

Answer:

A. and B.

Reference: pci dss level-1 faqs/

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Which tool can you use to forecast your AWS spending?

  • A. AWS organizations
  • B. Amazon Dev pay
  • C. AWS Trusted Advisor
  • D. AWS Cost explorer

Answer:

D. AWS Cost Explorer lets you dive deeper into your cost and usage data to identify trends, pinpoint cost drivers, and detect anomalies.

Reference: AWS Cost Explorer Docs

The Trusted Advisor service provides insight regarding which four categories of an AWS account?

  • A. Security, fault tolerance, high availability, performance and Service Limits
  • B. Security, access control, high availability, performance and Service Limits
  • C. Performance, cost optimization, Security, fault tolerance and Service Limits
  • D. Performance, cost optimization, Access Control, Connectivity, and Service Limits

Answer:

C. Performance, cost optimization, Security, fault tolerance and Service Limits

Reference: AWS trusted advisor

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As per the AWS Acceptable Use Policy, penetration testing of EC2 instances

  • A. May be performed by AWS, and will be performed by AWS upon customer request
  • B. May be performed by AWS, and is periodically performed by AWS
  • C. Are expressly prohibited under all circumtances
  • D. May be performed by the customer on their own instances with prior authorization from AWS
  • E. May be performed by the customer on their own instances, only if performed from EC2 instances

Answer:

D. You need to take authorization from AWS before doing a penetration test on EC2 instances.

Reference: AWS pen testing

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What is the AWS feature that enables fast, easy, and secure transfers of files over long distances between your client and your Amazon S3 bucket

  • A. File Transfer
  • B. HTTP Transfer
  • C. Transfer Acceleration
  • D. S3 Acceleration

Answer:

C. Transfer Acceleration

Reference: AWS transfer acceleration examples

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What best describes an AWS region?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. The physical networking connections between Availability Zones.
  • B. A specific location where an AWS data center is located.
  • C. A collection of DNS servers.
  • D. An isolated collection of AWS Availability Zones, of which there are many placed all around the world.

Answer:

D: An AWS region is an isolated geographical area that is is comprised of three or more AWS Availability Zones.

Reference:Concepts Regions And AvailabilityZones

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Question: Which of the following is a factor when calculating Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) for the AWS Cloud?

  • A. The number of servers migrated to AWS
  • B. The number of users migrated to AWS
  • C. The number of passwords migrated to AWS
  • D. The number of keys migrated to AWS

Answer:

A. Running servers will incur costs. The number of running servers is one factor of Server Costs; a key component of AWS’s Total Cost of Ownership (TCO). Reference: AWS cost calculator

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Which AWS Services can be used to store files? Choose 2 answers from the options given below:

  • A. Amazon CloudWatch
  • B. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
  • C. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
  • D. AWS COnfig
  • D. AWS Amazon Athena

Answer:

B. and C. Amazon S3 is a Object storage built to store and retrieve any amount of data from anywhere. Amazon Elastic Block Store is a Persistent block storage for Amazon EC2.

Reference: AWS s3 and AWS EBS

Question: What best describes Amazon Web Services (AWS)?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. AWS is the cloud.
  • B. AWS only provides compute and storage services.
  • C. AWS is a cloud services provider.
  • D. None of the above.

Answer:

C: AWS is defined as a cloud services provider. They provide hundreds of services of which compute and storage are included (not not limited to).
Reference: AWS

Question: Which AWS service can be used as a global content delivery network (CDN) service?

  • A. Amazon SES
  • B. Amazon CouldTrail
  • C. Amazon CloudFront
  • D. Amazon S3

Answer:

C: Amazon CloudFront is a web service that gives businesses and web application developers an easy
and cost effective way to distribute content with low latency and high data transfer speeds. Like other AWS services, Amazon CloudFront is a self-service, pay-per-use offering, requiring no long term commitments or minimum fees. With CloudFront, your files are delivered to end-users using a global network of edge locations.Reference: AWS cloudfront

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What best describes the concept of fault tolerance?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. The ability for a system to withstand a certain amount of failure and still remain functional.
  • B. The ability for a system to grow in size, capacity, and/or scope.
  • C. The ability for a system to be accessible when you attempt to access it.
  • D. The ability for a system to grow and shrink based on demand.

Answer:

A: Fault tolerance describes the concept of a system (in our case a web application) to have failure in some of its components and still remain accessible (highly available). Fault tolerant web applications will have at least two web servers (in case one fails).

Reference:Designing fault tolerant applications/

Question: The firm you work for is considering migrating to AWS. They are concerned about cost and the initial investment needed. Which of the following features of AWS pricing helps lower the initial investment amount needed? Choose 2 answers from the options given below:

  • A. The ability to choose the lowest cost vendor.
  • B. The ability to pay as you go
  • C. No upfront costs
  • D. Discounts for upfront payments

Answer:

B and C: The best features of moving to the AWS Cloud is: No upfront cost and The ability to pay as you go where the customer only pays for the resources needed. Reference: AWS pricing

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What best describes the concept of elasticity?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. The ability for a system to grow in size, capacity, and/or scope.
  • B. The ability for a system to grow and shrink based on demand.
  • C. The ability for a system to withstand a certain amount of failure and still remain functional.
  • D. ability for a system to be accessible when you attempt to access it.

Answer:

B: Elasticity (think of a rubber band) defines a system that can easily (and cost-effectively) grow and shrink based on required demand.

Reference:Cost optimization automating elasticity

Question: Your company has
started using AWS. Your IT Security team is concerned with the
security of hosting resources in the Cloud. Which AWS service provides security optimization recommendations that could help the IT Security team secure resources using AWS?

  • A. AWS API Gateway
  • B. Reserved Instances
  • C. AWS Trusted Advisor
  • D. AWS Spot Instances

Answer:

C: An online resource to help you reduce cost, increase performance, and improve security by optimizing your AWS environment, Trusted Advisor provides real time guidance to help you provision your resources following AWS best practices. Reference: AWS trusted advisor

What is the relationship between AWS global infrastructure and the concept of high availability?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. AWS is centrally located in one location and is subject to widespread outages if something happens at that one location.
  • B. AWS regions and Availability Zones allow for redundant architecture to be placed in isolated parts of the world.
  • C. Each AWS region handles a different AWS services, and you must use all regions to fully use AWS.
  • D. None of the above

Answer

B: As an AWS user, you can create your applications infrastructure and duplicate it. By placing duplicate infrastructure in multiple regions, high availability is created because if one region fails you have a backup (in a another region) to use.

Reference:RDS Concepts MultiAZ

Question: You are hosting a number of EC2 Instances on AWS. You are looking to monitor CPU Utilization on the Instance. Which service would you use to collect and track performance metrics for AWS services?

  • A. Amazon CloudFront
  • B. Amazon CloudSearch
  • C. Amazon CloudWatch
  • D. AWS Managed Services

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Answer:

C: Amazon CloudWatch is a monitoring service for AWS cloud resources and the applications you run on AWS. You can use Amazon CloudWatch to collect and track metrics, collect and monitor log files, set alarms, and automatically react to changes in your AWS resources. Reference: AWS cloudwatch/




Question: Which of the following support plans give access to all the checks in the Trusted Advisor service. Choose 2 answers from the options given below:

  • A. Basic
  • B. Business
  • C. Enterprise

Answer:

Question: Which of the following in AWS maps to a separate geographic location?

  • A. AWS Region
  • B. AWS Data Centers
  • C. AWS Availability Zone

Answer:

A: Amazon cloud computing resources are hosted in multiple locations world-wide. These locations are composed of AWS Regions and Availability Zones. Each AWS Region is a separate geographic area. Reference: AWS Regions And Availability Zone

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What best describes the concept of scalability?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. The ability for a system to grow and shrink based on demand.
  • B. The ability for a system to grow in size, capacity, and/or scope.
  • C. The ability for a system be be accessible when you attempt to access it.
  • D. The ability for a system to withstand a certain amount of failure and still remain functional.

Answer

B: Scalability refers to the concept of a system being able to easily (and cost-effectively) scale UP. For web applications, this means the ability to easily add server capacity when demand requires.

Reference:AWS autoscaling

Question: If you wanted to monitor all events in your AWS account, which of the below services would you use?

  • A. AWS CloudWatch
  • B. AWS CloudWatch logs
  • C. AWS Config
  • D. AWS CloudTrail

Answer:

D: AWS CloudTrail is a service that enables governance, compliance, operational auditing, and risk
auditing of your AWS account. With CloudTrail, you can log, continuously monitor, and retain account activity related to actions across your AWS infrastructure. CloudTrail provides event history of your AWS account activity, including actions taken through the AWS Management Console, AWS SDKs, command line tools, and other AWS services. This event history simplifies security analysis, resource change tracking, and troubleshooting. Reference: Cloudtrail




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What are the four primary benefits of using the cloud/AWS?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. Fault tolerance, scalability, elasticity, and high availability.
  • B. Elasticity, scalability, easy access, limited storage.
  • C. Fault tolerance, scalability, sometimes available, unlimited storage
  • D. Unlimited storage, limited compute capacity, fault tolerance, and high availability.

Answer:

A: Fault tolerance, scalability, elasticity, and high availability are the four primary benefits of AWS/the cloud.

What best describes a simplified definition of the “cloud”?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. All the computers in your local home network.
  • B. Your internet service provider
  • C. A computer located somewhere else that you are utilizing in some capacity.
  • D. An on-premisis data center that your company owns.

Answer

D: The simplest definition of the cloud is a computer that is located somewhere else that you are utilizing in some capacity. AWS is a cloud services provider, as the provide access to computers they own (located at AWS data centers), that you use for various purposes.

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Question: Your development team is planning to host a development environment on the cloud. This consists of EC2 and RDS instances. This environment will probably only be required for 2 months. Which types of instances would you use for this purpose?

  • A. On-Demand
  • B. Spot
  • C. Reserved
  • D. Dedicated

Answer:

A: The best and cost effective option would be to use On-Demand Instances. The AWS documentation gives the following additional information on On-Demand EC2 Instances. With On-Demand instances you only pay for
EC2 instances you use. The use of On-Demand instances frees you from the costs and complexities of planning, purchasing, and maintaining hardware and transforms what are commonly large fixed costs into much smaller variable costs. Reference: AWS ec2 pricing on-demand

Question: Which of the following can be used to secure EC2 Instances?

  • A. Security Groups
  • B. EC2 Lists
  • C. AWS Configs
  • D. AWS CloudWatch

Answer:

A: security group< acts as a virtual firewall for your instance to control inbound and outbound traffic. When you launch an instance in a VPC, you can assign up to five security groups to the instance. Security groups act at the instance level, not the subnet level. Therefore, each instance in a subnet in your VPC could be assigned to a different set of security groups. If you don’t specify a particular group at launch time, the instance is automatically assigned to the default security group for the VPC. Reference: VPC Security Groups




Exam Topics:

The AWS Cloud Practitioner exam is broken down into 4 domains

  • Cloud Concepts
  • Security
  • Technology
  • Billing and Pricing.

What is the purpose of a DNS server?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. To act as an internet search engine.
  • B. To protect you from hacking attacks.
  • C. To convert common language domain names to IP addresses.
  • D. To serve web application content.

Answer:

C: Domain name system servers act as a “third party” that provides the service of converting common language domain names to IP addresses (which are required for a web browser to properly make a request for web content).

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What best describes the concept of high availability?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. The ability for a system to grow in size, capacity, and/or scope.
  • B. The ability for a system to withstand a certain amount of failure and still remain functional.
  • C. The ability for a system to grow and shrink based on demand.
  • D. The ability for a system to be accessible when you attempt to access it.

Answer:

D: High availability refers to the concept that something will be accessible when you try to access it. An object or web application is “highly available” when it is accessible a vast majority of the time.

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What is the major difference between AWS’s RDS and DynamoDB database services?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. RDS offers NoSQL database options, and DynamoDB offers SQL database options.
  • B. RDS offers one SQL database option, and DynamoDB offers many NoSQL database options.
  • C. RDS offers SQL database options, and DynamoDB offers a NoSQL database option.
  • D. None of the above

Answer:

C. RDS is a SQL database service (that offers several database engine options), and DynamoDB is a NoSQL database option that only offers one NoSQL engine.

Reference:

What are two open source in-memory engines supported by ElastiCache?

Choose the 2 correct answers:

  • A. CacheIt
  • B. Aurora
  • C. MemcacheD
  • D. Redis

Answer:

C. and D. Redis, MemcacheD

Reference: AWS Elasticache/

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What AWS database service is used for data warehousing of petabytes of data?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. RDS
  • B. Elasticache
  • C. Redshift
  • D. DynamoDB

Answer:

C. Redshift is a fully-managed data warehouse that is perfect for storing petabytes worth of data.

Reference: AWS Redshift

Which AWS service uses a combination of publishers and subscribers?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. Lambda
  • B. RDS
  • C. EC2
  • D. SNS

Answer:

D. In SNS, there are two types of clients: publishers and subscribers. Publishers send the message, and subscribers receive the message.

Reference: AWS SNS

What SQL database engine options are available in RDS?

Choose the 3 correct answers:

  • A. MySQL
  • B. MongoDB
  • C. PostgreSQL
  • D. MariaDB

Answer:

A. C. and D. RDS offers the following SQL options: Aurora MySQL MariaDB PostgreSQL Oracle Microsoft SQLServer

Reference:

What is the name of AWS’s RDS SQL database engine?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. Lightsail
  • B. Aurora
  • C. MySQL
  • D. SNS

Answer:

B. AWS created their own custom SQL database engine, which is called Aurora.

Reference: AWS Aurora




Under what circumstances would you choose to use the AWS service CloudTrail?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. When you want to log what actions various IAM users are taking in your AWS account.
  • B. When you want a serverless compute platform.
  • C. When you want to collect and view resource metrics.
  • D. When you want to send SMS notifications based on events that occur in your account.

Answer:

A. When you want to log what actions various IAM users are taking in your AWS account.

Reference: AWS Cloudtrail

If you want to monitor the average CPU usage of your EC2 instances, which AWS service should you use?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. CloudMonitor
  • B. CloudTrail
  • C. CloudWatch
  • D. None of the above

Answer:

C. CloudWatch is used to collect, view, and track metrics for resources (such as EC2 instances) in your AWS account.

Reference: AWS CloudWatch

What is AWS’s relational database service?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. ElastiCache
  • B. DymamoDB
  • C. RDS
  • D. Redshift

Answer:

C. RDS offers SQL database options – otherwise known as relational databases.

Reference: AWS RDS

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If you want to have SMS or email notifications sent to various members of your department with status updates on resources in your AWS account, what service should you choose?

Choose the correct answer:

  • A. SNS
  • B. GetSMS
  • C. RDS
  • D. STS

Answer:

A. Simple Notification Service (SNS) is what publishes messages to SMS and/or email endpoints.

Reference: AWS SNS




AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Whitepapers:

AWS has provided whitepapers to help you understand the technical concepts. Below are the recommended whitepapers.

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Online Training and Labs for AWS Cloud Certified Practitioner Exam

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AWS Cloud Practitioners Jobs




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AWS Cloud Practitioner Exam info and details, How To:

The AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam is a multiple choice, multiple answer exam. Here is the Exam Overview:

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Additional Information for reference

Below are some useful reference links that would help you to learn about AWS Practitioner Exam.

Other Relevant and Recommended AWS Certifications

AWS Certification Exams Roadmap
AWS Certification Exams Roadmap

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Other AWS Facts and Summaries and Questions/Answers Dump