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2022 AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Preparation: Questions and Answers Dump.
Welcome to AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Preparation:
Definition and Objectives, Top 100 Questions and Answers dump, White papers, Courses, Labs and Training Materials, Exam info and details, References, Jobs, Others AWS Certificates
What is the AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam?
This AWS Certified Developer-Associate Examination is intended for individuals who perform a Developer role. It validates an examinee’s ability to:
- Demonstrate an understanding of core AWS services, uses, and basic AWS architecture best practices
- Demonstrate proficiency in developing, deploying, and debugging cloud-based applications by using AWS
Recommended general IT knowledge
The target candidate should have the following:
– In-depth knowledge of at least one high-level programming language
– Understanding of application lifecycle management
– The ability to write code for serverless applications
– Understanding of the use of containers in the development process
Recommended AWS knowledge
The target candidate should be able to do the following:
- Use the AWS service APIs, CLI, and software development kits (SDKs) to write applications
- Identify key features of AWS services
- Understand the AWS shared responsibility model
- Use a continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline to deploy applications on AWS
- Use and interact with AWS services
- Apply basic understanding of cloud-native applications to write code
- Write code by using AWS security best practices (for example, use IAM roles instead of secret and access keys in the code)
- Author, maintain, and debug code modules on AWS
What is considered out of scope for the target candidate?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of related job tasks that the target candidate is not expected to be able to perform. These items are considered out of scope for the exam:
– Design architectures (for example, distributed system, microservices)
– Design and implement CI/CD pipelines
- Administer IAM users and groups
- Administer Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
- Design AWS networking infrastructure (for example, Amazon VPC, AWS Direct Connect)
- Understand compliance and licensing
Exam content
Response types
There are two types of questions on the exam:
– Multiple choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors)
– Multiple response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more response options
Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that a candidate with incomplete knowledge or skill might choose.
Distractors are generally plausible responses that match the content area.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing. The exam includes 50 questions that will affect your score.
Unscored content
The exam includes 15 unscored questions that do not affect your score. AWS collects information about candidate performance on these unscored questions to evaluate these questions for future use as scored questions. These unscored questions are not identified on the exam.
Exam results
The AWS Certified Developer – Associate (DVA-C01) exam is a pass or fail exam. The exam is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who follow certification industry best practices and guidelines.
Your results for the exam are reported as a scaled score of 100–1,000. The minimum passing score is 720.
Your score shows how you performed on the exam as a whole and whether you passed. Scaled scoring models help equate scores across multiple exam forms that might have slightly different difficulty levels.
Your score report could contain a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information is intended to provide general feedback about your exam performance. The exam uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to achieve a passing score in each section. You need to pass only the overall exam.
Each section of the exam has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than other sections have. The table contains general information that highlights your strengths and weaknesses. Use caution when interpreting section-level feedback.
Content outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives for the exam. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on the exam. However, additional context for each of the objectives is available to help guide your preparation for the exam. The following table lists the main content domains and their weightings. The table precedes the complete exam content outline, which includes the additional context.
The percentage in each domain represents only scored content.
Domain 1: Deployment 22%
Domain 2: Security 26%
Domain 3: Development with AWS Services 30%
Domain 4: Refactoring 10%
Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting 12%
Domain 1: Deployment
1.1 Deploy written code in AWS using existing CI/CD pipelines, processes, and patterns.
– Commit code to a repository and invoke build, test and/or deployment actions
– Use labels and branches for version and release management
– Use AWS CodePipeline to orchestrate workflows against different environments
– Apply AWS CodeCommit, AWS CodeBuild, AWS CodePipeline, AWS CodeStar, and AWS
CodeDeploy for CI/CD purposes
– Perform a roll back plan based on application deployment policy
1.2 Deploy applications using AWS Elastic Beanstalk.
– Utilize existing supported environments to define a new application stack
– Package the application
– Introduce a new application version into the Elastic Beanstalk environment
– Utilize a deployment policy to deploy an application version (i.e., all at once, rolling, rolling with batch, immutable)
– Validate application health using Elastic Beanstalk dashboard
– Use Amazon CloudWatch Logs to instrument application logging
1.3 Prepare the application deployment package to be deployed to AWS.
– Manage the dependencies of the code module (like environment variables, config files and static image files) within the package
– Outline the package/container directory structure and organize files appropriately
– Translate application resource requirements to AWS infrastructure parameters (e.g., memory, cores)
1.4 Deploy serverless applications.
– Given a use case, implement and launch an AWS Serverless Application Model (AWS SAM) template
– Manage environments in individual AWS services (e.g., Differentiate between Development, Test, and Production in Amazon API Gateway)
Domain 2: Security
2.1 Make authenticated calls to AWS services.
– Communicate required policy based on least privileges required by application.
– Assume an IAM role to access a service
– Use the software development kit (SDK) credential provider on-premises or in the cloud to access AWS services (local credentials vs. instance roles)
2.2 Implement encryption using AWS services.
– Encrypt data at rest (client side; server side; envelope encryption) using AWS services
– Encrypt data in transit
2.3 Implement application authentication and authorization.
– Add user sign-up and sign-in functionality for applications with Amazon Cognito identity or user pools
– Use Amazon Cognito-provided credentials to write code that access AWS services.
– Use Amazon Cognito sync to synchronize user profiles and data
– Use developer-authenticated identities to interact between end user devices, backend
authentication, and Amazon Cognito
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Domain 3: Development with AWS Services
3.1 Write code for serverless applications.
– Compare and contrast server-based vs. serverless model (e.g., micro services, stateless nature of serverless applications, scaling serverless applications, and decoupling layers of serverless applications)
– Configure AWS Lambda functions by defining environment variables and parameters (e.g., memory, time out, runtime, handler)
– Create an API endpoint using Amazon API Gateway
– Create and test appropriate API actions like GET, POST using the API endpoint
– Apply Amazon DynamoDB concepts (e.g., tables, items, and attributes)
– Compute read/write capacity units for Amazon DynamoDB based on application requirements
– Associate an AWS Lambda function with an AWS event source (e.g., Amazon API Gateway, Amazon CloudWatch event, Amazon S3 events, Amazon Kinesis)
– Invoke an AWS Lambda function synchronously and asynchronously
3.2 Translate functional requirements into application design.
– Determine real-time vs. batch processing for a given use case
– Determine use of synchronous vs. asynchronous for a given use case
– Determine use of event vs. schedule/poll for a given use case
– Account for tradeoffs for consistency models in an application design
Domain 4: Refactoring
4.1 Optimize applications to best use AWS services and features.
Implement AWS caching services to optimize performance (e.g., Amazon ElastiCache, Amazon API Gateway cache)
Apply an Amazon S3 naming scheme for optimal read performance
4.2 Migrate existing application code to run on AWS.
– Isolate dependencies
– Run the application as one or more stateless processes
– Develop in order to enable horizontal scalability
– Externalize state
Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting
5.1 Write code that can be monitored.
– Create custom Amazon CloudWatch metrics
– Perform logging in a manner available to systems operators
– Instrument application source code to enable tracing in AWS X-Ray
5.2 Perform root cause analysis on faults found in testing or production.
– Interpret the outputs from the logging mechanism in AWS to identify errors in logs
– Check build and testing history in AWS services (e.g., AWS CodeBuild, AWS CodeDeploy, AWS CodePipeline) to identify issues
– Utilize AWS services (e.g., Amazon CloudWatch, VPC Flow Logs, and AWS X-Ray) to locate a specific faulty component
Which key tools, technologies, and concepts might be covered on the exam?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of the tools and technologies that could appear on the exam.
This list is subject to change and is provided to help you understand the general scope of services, features, or technologies on the exam.
The general tools and technologies in this list appear in no particular order.
AWS services are grouped according to their primary functions. While some of these technologies will likely be covered more than others on the exam, the order and placement of them in this list is no indication of relative weight or importance:
– Analytics
– Application Integration
– Containers
– Cost and Capacity Management
– Data Movement
– Developer Tools
– Instances (virtual machines)
– Management and Governance
– Networking and Content Delivery
– Security
– Serverless
AWS services and features
Analytics:
– Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES)
– Amazon Kinesis
Application Integration:
– Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events)
– Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
– Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
– AWS Step Functions
Compute:
– Amazon EC2
– AWS Elastic Beanstalk
– AWS Lambda
Containers:
– Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR)
– Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
– Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Services (Amazon EKS)
Database:
– Amazon DynamoDB
– Amazon ElastiCache
– Amazon RDS
Developer Tools:
– AWS CodeArtifact
– AWS CodeBuild
– AWS CodeCommit
– AWS CodeDeploy
– Amazon CodeGuru
– AWS CodePipeline
– AWS CodeStar
– AWS Fault Injection Simulator
– AWS X-Ray
Management and Governance:
– AWS CloudFormation
– Amazon CloudWatch
Networking and Content Delivery:
– Amazon API Gateway
– Amazon CloudFront
– Elastic Load Balancing
Security, Identity, and Compliance:
– Amazon Cognito
– AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
– AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
Storage:
– Amazon S3
Out-of-scope AWS services and features
The following is a non-exhaustive list of AWS services and features that are not covered on the exam.
These services and features do not represent every AWS offering that is excluded from the exam content.
Services or features that are entirely unrelated to the target job roles for the exam are excluded from this list because they are assumed to be irrelevant.
Out-of-scope AWS services and features include the following:
– AWS Application Discovery Service
– Amazon AppStream 2.0
– Amazon Chime
– Amazon Connect
– AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)
– AWS Device Farm
– Amazon Elastic Transcoder
– Amazon GameLift
– Amazon Lex
– Amazon Machine Learning (Amazon ML)
– AWS Managed Services
– Amazon Mobile Analytics
– Amazon Polly
– Amazon QuickSight
– Amazon Rekognition
– AWS Server Migration Service (AWS SMS)
– AWS Service Catalog
– AWS Shield Advanced
– AWS Shield Standard
– AWS Snow Family
– AWS Storage Gateway
– AWS WAF
– Amazon WorkMail
– Amazon WorkSpaces
To succeed with the real exam, do not memorize the answers below. It is very important that you understand why a question is right or wrong and the concepts behind it by carefully reading the reference documents in the answers.
AWS Certified Developer – Associate Practice Questions And Answers Dump
Q0: Your application reads commands from an SQS queue and sends them to web services hosted by your
partners. When a partner’s endpoint goes down, your application continually returns their commands to the queue. The repeated attempts to deliver these commands use up resources. Commands that can’t be delivered must not be lost.
How can you accommodate the partners’ broken web services without wasting your resources?
- A. Create a delay queue and set DelaySeconds to 30 seconds
- B. Requeue the message with a VisibilityTimeout of 30 seconds.
- C. Create a dead letter queue and set the Maximum Receives to 3.
- D. Requeue the message with a DelaySeconds of 30 seconds.
Top
Q1: A developer is writing an application that will store data in a DynamoDB table. The ratio of reads operations to write operations will be 1000 to 1, with the same data being accessed frequently.
What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?
- A. Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling
- B. Amazon DynamoDB cross-region replication
- C. Amazon DynamoDB Streams
- D. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator
Top
Q2: You are creating a DynamoDB table with the following attributes:
- PurchaseOrderNumber (partition key)
- CustomerID
- PurchaseDate
- TotalPurchaseValue
One of your applications must retrieve items from the table to calculate the total value of purchases for a
particular customer over a date range. What secondary index do you need to add to the table?
- A. Local secondary index with a partition key of CustomerID and sort key of PurchaseDate; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - B. Local secondary index with a partition key of PurchaseDate and sort key of CustomerID; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - C. Global secondary index with a partition key of CustomerID and sort key of PurchaseDate; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - D. Global secondary index with a partition key of PurchaseDate and sort key of CustomerID; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute
Top
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Q3: When referencing the remaining time left for a Lambda function to run within the function’s code you would use:
- A. The event object
- B. The timeLeft object
- C. The remains object
- D. The context object
Top
Q4: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?
- A. invocation, zone
- B. event, zone
- C. invocation, context
- D. event, context
Q5: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only via SFTP
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
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Q6: A Lambda deployment package contains:
- A. Function code, libraries, and runtime binaries
- B. Only function code
- C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
- D. Only libraries not included within the runtime
Q7: You are attempting to SSH into an EC2 instance that is located in a public subnet. However, you are currently receiving a timeout error trying to connect. What could be a possible cause of this connection issue?
- A. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic, but does not have an outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
- B. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND has an outbound rule that explicitly denies SSH traffic.
- C. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND the associated NACL has both an inbound and outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
- D. The security group associated with the EC2 instance does not have an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND the associated NACL does not have an outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
Top
Q8: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?
- A. Create and assign EIP to each instance
- B. Create and attach a second IGW to the VPC.
- C. Create and utilize a NAT Gateway
- D. Connect to a VPN
Top
Q9: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?
- A. Security Groups
- B. Route Tables
- C. Elastic Load Balancer
- D. Auto Scaling
Top
Q10: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Q11: You’re writing a script with an AWS SDK that uses the AWS API Actions and want to create AMIs for non-EBS backed AMIs for you. Which API call should occurs in the final process of creating an AMI?
- A. RegisterImage
- B. CreateImage
- C. ami-register-image
- D. ami-create-image
Q12: When dealing with session state in EC2-based applications using Elastic load balancers which option is generally thought of as the best practice for managing user sessions?
- A. Having the ELB distribute traffic to all EC2 instances and then having the instance check a caching solution like ElastiCache running Redis or Memcached for session information
- B. Permenantly assigning users to specific instances and always routing their traffic to those instances
- C. Using Application-generated cookies to tie a user session to a particular instance for the cookie duration
- D. Using Elastic Load Balancer generated cookies to tie a user session to a particular instance
Q13: Which API call would best be used to describe an Amazon Machine Image?
- A. ami-describe-image
- B. ami-describe-images
- C. DescribeImage
- D. DescribeImages
Q14: What is one key difference between an Amazon EBS-backed and an instance-store backed instance?
- A. Autoscaling requires using Amazon EBS-backed instances
- B. Virtual Private Cloud requires EBS backed instances
- C. Amazon EBS-backed instances can be stopped and restarted without losing data
- D. Instance-store backed instances can be stopped and restarted without losing data
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Q15: After having created a new Linux instance on Amazon EC2, and downloaded the .pem file (called Toto.pem) you try and SSH into your IP address (54.1.132.33) using the following command.
ssh -i my_key.pem ec2-user@52.2.222.22
However you receive the following error.
@@@@@@@@ WARNING: UNPROTECTED PRIVATE KEY FILE! @ @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
What is the most probable reason for this and how can you fix it?
- A. You do not have root access on your terminal and need to use the sudo option for this to work.
- B. You do not have enough permissions to perform the operation.
- C. Your key file is encrypted. You need to use the -u option for unencrypted not the -i option.
- D. Your key file must not be publicly viewable for SSH to work. You need to modify your .pem file to limit permissions.
Q16: You have an EBS root device on /dev/sda1 on one of your EC2 instances. You are having trouble with this particular instance and you need to either Stop/Start, Reboot or Terminate the instance but you do NOT want to lose any data that you have stored on /dev/sda1. However, you are unsure if changing the instance state in any of the aforementioned ways will cause you to lose data stored on the EBS volume. Which of the below statements best describes the effect each change of instance state would have on the data you have stored on /dev/sda1?
- A. Whether you stop/start, reboot or terminate the instance it does not matter because data on an EBS volume is not ephemeral and the data will not be lost regardless of what method is used.
- B. If you stop/start the instance the data will not be lost. However if you either terminate or reboot the instance the data will be lost.
- C. Whether you stop/start, reboot or terminate the instance it does not matter because data on an EBS volume is ephemeral and it will be lost no matter what method is used.
- D. The data will be lost if you terminate the instance, however the data will remain on /dev/sda1 if you reboot or stop/start the instance because data on an EBS volume is not ephemeral.
Q17: EC2 instances are launched from Amazon Machine Images (AMIs). A given public AMI:
- A. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same AWS availability zone as the AMI is stored
- B. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same country as the AMI is stored
- C. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same AWS region as the AMI is stored
- D. Can be used to launch EC2 instances in any AWS region
Q18: Which of the following statements is true about the Elastic File System (EFS)?
- A. EFS can scale out to meet capacity requirements and scale back down when no longer needed
- B. EFS can be used by multiple EC2 instances simultaneously
- C. EFS cannot be used by an instance using EBS
- D. EFS can be configured on an instance before launch just like an IAM role or EBS volumes
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Q19: IAM Policies, at a minimum, contain what elements?
- A. ID
- B. Effects
- C. Resources
- D. Sid
- E. Principle
- F. Actions
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Q20: What are the main benefits of IAM groups?
- A. The ability to create custom permission policies.
- B. Assigning IAM permission policies to more than one user at a time.
- C. Easier user/policy management.
- D. Allowing EC2 instances to gain access to S3.
Q21: What are benefits of using AWS STS?
- A. Grant access to AWS resources without having to create an IAM identity for them
- B. Since credentials are temporary, you don’t have to rotate or revoke them
- C. Temporary security credentials can be extended indefinitely
- D. Temporary security credentials can be restricted to a specific region
Q22: What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?
- A. Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling
- B. Amazon DynamoDB cross-region replication
- C. Amazon DynamoDB Streams
- D. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator
Top
Q23: A Developer has been asked to create an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment for a production web application which needs to handle thousands of requests. Currently the dev environment is running on a t1 micro instance. How can the Developer change the EC2 instance type to m4.large?
- A. Use CloudFormation to migrate the Amazon EC2 instance type of the environment from t1 micro to m4.large.
- B. Create a saved configuration file in Amazon S3 with the instance type as m4.large and use the same during environment creation.
- C. Change the instance type to m4.large in the configuration details page of the Create New Environment page.
- D. Change the instance type value for the environment to m4.large by using update autoscaling group CLI command.
Q24: What statements are true about Availability Zones (AZs) and Regions?
- A. There is only one AZ in each AWS Region
- B. AZs are geographically separated inside a region to help protect against natural disasters affecting more than one at a time.
- C. AZs can be moved between AWS Regions based on your needs
- D. There are (almost always) two or more AZs in each AWS Region
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Q25: An AWS Region contains:
- A. Edge Locations
- B. Data Centers
- C. AWS Services
- D. Availability Zones
Top
Q26: Which read request in DynamoDB returns a response with the most up-to-date data, reflecting the updates from all prior write operations that were successful?
- A. Eventual Consistent Reads
- B. Conditional reads for Consistency
- C. Strongly Consistent Reads
- D. Not possible
Top
Q27: You’ ve been asked to move an existing development environment on the AWS Cloud. This environment consists mainly of Docker based containers. You need to ensure that minimum effort is taken during the migration process. Which of the following step would you consider for this requirement?
- A. Create an Opswork stack and deploy the Docker containers
- B. Create an application and Environment for the Docker containers in the Elastic Beanstalk service
- C. Create an EC2 Instance. Install Docker and deploy the necessary containers.
- D. Create an EC2 Instance. Install Docker and deploy the necessary containers. Add an Autoscaling Group for scalability of the containers.
Top
Q28: You’ve written an application that uploads objects onto an S3 bucket. The size of the object varies between 200 – 500 MB. You’ve seen that the application sometimes takes a longer than expected time to upload the object. You want to improve the performance of the application. Which of the following would you consider?
- A. Create multiple threads and upload the objects in the multiple threads
- B. Write the items in batches for better performance
- C. Use the Multipart upload API
- D. Enable versioning on the Bucket
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Top
Q29: A security system monitors 600 cameras, saving image metadata every 1 minute to an Amazon DynamoDb table. Each sample involves 1kb of data, and the data writes are evenly distributed over time. How much write throughput is required for the target table?
- A. 6000
- B. 10
- C. 3600
- D. 600
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Q30: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?
- A. invocation, zone
- B. event, zone
- C. invocation, context
- D. event, context
Top
Q31: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only via SFTP
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Top
Q32: A Lambda deployment package contains:
- A. Function code, libraries, and runtime binaries
- B. Only function code
- C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
- D. Only libraries not included within the runtime
Top
Q33: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?
- A. Create and assign EIP to each instance
- B. Create and attach a second IGW to the VPC.
- C. Create and utilize a NAT Gateway
- D. Connect to a VPN
Top
Q34: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?
- A. Security Groups
- B. Route Tables
- C. Elastic Load Balancer
- D. Auto Scaling
Top
Q30: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Answer:
Top
Q31: An organization is using an Amazon ElastiCache cluster in front of their Amazon RDS instance. The organization would like the Developer to implement logic into the code so that the cluster only retrieves data from RDS when there is a cache miss. What strategy can the Developer implement to achieve this?
- A. Lazy loading
- B. Write-through
- C. Error retries
- D. Exponential backoff
Answer:
Top
Q32: A developer is writing an application that will run on Ec2 instances and read messages from SQS queue. The nessages will arrive every 15-60 seconds. How should the Developer efficiently query the queue for new messages?
- A. Use long polling
- B. Set a custom visibility timeout
- C. Use short polling
- D. Implement exponential backoff
Top
Q33: You are using AWS SAM to define a Lambda function and configure CodeDeploy to manage deployment patterns. With new Lambda function working as per expectation which of the following will shift traffic from original Lambda function to new Lambda function in the shortest time frame?
- A. Canary10Percent5Minutes
- B. Linear10PercentEvery10Minutes
- C. Canary10Percent15Minutes
- D. Linear10PercentEvery1Minute
Top
Q34: You are using AWS SAM templates to deploy a serverless application. Which of the following resource will embed application from Amazon S3 buckets?
- A. AWS::Serverless::Api
- B. AWS::Serverless::Application
- C. AWS::Serverless::Layerversion
- D. AWS::Serverless::Function
Top
Q35: You are using AWS Envelope Encryption for encrypting all sensitive data. Which of the followings is True with regards to Envelope Encryption?
- A. Data is encrypted be encrypting Data key which is further encrypted using encrypted Master Key.
- B. Data is encrypted by plaintext Data key which is further encrypted using encrypted Master Key.
- C. Data is encrypted by encrypted Data key which is further encrypted using plaintext Master Key.
- D. Data is encrypted by plaintext Data key which is further encrypted using plaintext Master Key.
Top
Q36: You are developing an application that will be comprised of the following architecture –
- A set of Ec2 instances to process the videos.
- These (Ec2 instances) will be spun up by an autoscaling group.
- SQS Queues to maintain the processing messages.
- There will be 2 pricing tiers.
How will you ensure that the premium customers videos are given more preference?
- A. Create 2 Autoscaling Groups, one for normal and one for premium customers
- B. Create 2 set of Ec2 Instances, one for normal and one for premium customers
- C. Create 2 SQS queus, one for normal and one for premium customers
- D. Create 2 Elastic Load Balancers, one for normal and one for premium customers.
Top
Q37: You are developing an application that will interact with a DynamoDB table. The table is going to take in a lot of read and write operations. Which of the following would be the ideal partition key for the DynamoDB table to ensure ideal performance?
- A. CustomerID
- B. CustomerName
- C. Location
- D. Age
Top
Q38: A developer is making use of AWS services to develop an application. He has been asked to develop the application in a manner to compensate any network delays. Which of the following two mechanisms should he implement in the application?
- A. Multiple SQS queues
- B. Exponential backoff algorithm
- C. Retries in your application code
- D. Consider using the Java sdk.
Top
Q39: An application is being developed that is going to write data to a DynamoDB table. You have to setup the read and write throughput for the table. Data is going to be read at the rate of 300 items every 30 seconds. Each item is of size 6KB. The reads can be eventual consistent reads. What should be the read capacity that needs to be set on the table?
- A. 10
- B. 20
- C. 6
- D. 30
Top
Q40: You are in charge of deploying an application that will be hosted on an EC2 Instance and sit behind an Elastic Load balancer. You have been requested to monitor the incoming connections to the Elastic Load Balancer. Which of the below options can suffice this requirement?
- A. Use AWS CloudTrail with your load balancer
- B. Enable access logs on the load balancer
- C. Use a CloudWatch Logs Agent
- D. Create a custom metric CloudWatch lter on your load balancer
Top
Q41: A static web site has been hosted on a bucket and is now being accessed by users. One of the web pages javascript section has been changed to access data which is hosted in another S3 bucket. Now that same web page is no longer loading in the browser. Which of the following can help alleviate the error?
- A. Enable versioning for the underlying S3 bucket.
- B. Enable Replication so that the objects get replicated to the other bucket
- C. Enable CORS for the bucket
- D. Change the Bucket policy for the bucket to allow access from the other bucket
Top
Q42: Your mobile application includes a photo-sharing service that is expecting tens of thousands of users at launch. You will leverage Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3) for storage of the user Images, and you must decide how to authenticate and authorize your users for access to these images. You also need to manage the storage of these images. Which two of the following approaches should you use? Choose two answers from the options below
- A. Create an Amazon S3 bucket per user, and use your application to generate the S3 URL for the appropriate content.
- B. Use AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) user accounts as your application-level user database, and offload the burden of authentication from your application code.
- C. Authenticate your users at the application level, and use AWS Security Token Service (STS)to grant token-based authorization to S3 objects.
- D. Authenticate your users at the application level, and send an SMS token message to the user. Create an Amazon S3 bucket with the same name as the SMS message token, and move the user’s objects to that bucket.
Top
Q43: Your current log analysis application takes more than four hours to generate a report of the top 10 users of your web application. You have been asked to implement a system that can report this information in real time, ensure that the report is always up to date, and handle increases in the number of requests to your web application. Choose the option that is cost-effective and can fulfill the requirements.
- A. Publish your data to CloudWatch Logs, and congure your application to Autoscale to handle the load on demand.
- B. Publish your log data to an Amazon S3 bucket. Use AWS CloudFormation to create an Auto Scaling group to scale your post-processing application which is congured to pull down your log les stored an Amazon S3
- C. Post your log data to an Amazon Kinesis data stream, and subscribe your log-processing application so that is congured to process your logging data.
- D. Create a multi-AZ Amazon RDS MySQL cluster, post the logging data to MySQL, and run a map reduce job to retrieve the required information on user counts.
Answer:
Top
Q44: You’ve been instructed to develop a mobile application that will make use of AWS services. You need to decide on a data store to store the user sessions. Which of the following would be an ideal data store for session management?
- A. AWS Simple Storage Service
- B. AWS DynamoDB
- C. AWS RDS
- D. AWS Redshift
Answer:
Top
Q45: Your application currently interacts with a DynamoDB table. Records are inserted into the table via the application. There is now a requirement to ensure that whenever items are updated in the DynamoDB primary table , another record is inserted into a secondary table. Which of the below feature should be used when developing such a solution?
- A. AWS DynamoDB Encryption
- B. AWS DynamoDB Streams
- C. AWS DynamoDB Accelerator
- D. AWSTable Accelerator
Top
Q46: An application has been making use of AWS DynamoDB for its back-end data store. The size of the table has now grown to 20 GB , and the scans on the table are causing throttling errors. Which of the following should now be implemented to avoid such errors?
- A. Large Page size
- B. Reduced page size
- C. Parallel Scans
- D. Sequential scans
Top
Q47: Which of the following is correct way of passing a stage variable to an HTTP URL ? (Select TWO.)
- A. http://example.com/${}/prod
- B. http://example.com/${stageVariables.}/prod
- C. http://${stageVariables.}.example.com/dev/operation
- D. http://${stageVariables}.example.com/dev/operation
- E. http://${}.example.com/dev/operation
- F. http://example.com/${stageVariables}/prod
Top
Q48: Your company is planning on creating new development environments in AWS. They want to make use of their existing Chef recipes which they use for their on-premise configuration for servers in AWS. Which of the following service would be ideal to use in this regard?
- A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
- B. AWS OpsWork
- C. AWS Cloudformation
- D. AWS SQS
Top
Q49: Your company has developed a web application and is hosting it in an Amazon S3 bucket configured for static website hosting. The users can log in to this app using their Google/Facebook login accounts. The application is using the AWS SDK for JavaScript in the browser to access data stored in an Amazon DynamoDB table. How can you ensure that API keys for access to your data in DynamoDB are kept secure?
- A. Create an Amazon S3 role in IAM with access to the specific DynamoDB tables, and assign it to the bucket hosting your website
- B. Configure S3 bucket tags with your AWS access keys for your bucket hosing your website so that the application can query them for access.
- C. Configure a web identity federation role within IAM to enable access to the correct DynamoDB resources and retrieve temporary credentials
- D. Store AWS keys in global variables within your application and configure the application to use these credentials when making requests.
Top
Q50: Your application currently makes use of AWS Cognito for managing user identities. You want to analyze the information that is stored in AWS Cognito for your application. Which of the following features of AWS Cognito should you use for this purpose?
- A. Cognito Data
- B. Cognito Events
- C. Cognito Streams
- D. Cognito Callbacks
Top
Q51: You’ve developed a set of scripts using AWS Lambda. These scripts need to access EC2 Instances in a VPC. Which of the following needs to be done to ensure that the AWS Lambda function can access the resources in the VPC. Choose 2 answers from the options given below
- A. Ensure that the subnet ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- B. Ensure that the NACL ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- C. Ensure that the Security Group ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- D. Ensure that the VPC Flow Log ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
Top
Q52: You’ve currently been tasked to migrate an existing on-premise environment into Elastic Beanstalk. The application does not make use of Docker containers. You also can’t see any relevant environments in the beanstalk service that would be suitable to host your application. What should you consider doing in this case?
- A. Migrate your application to using Docker containers and then migrate the app to the Elastic Beanstalk environment.
- B. Consider using Cloudformation to deploy your environment to Elastic Beanstalk
- C. Consider using Packer to create a custom platform
- D. Consider deploying your application using the Elastic Container Service
Top
Q53: Company B is writing 10 items to the Dynamo DB table every second. Each item is 15.5Kb in size. What would be the required provisioned write throughput for best performance? Choose the correct answer from the options below.
- A. 10
- B. 160
- C. 155
- D. 16
Top
Q54: Which AWS Service can be used to automatically install your application code onto EC2, on premises systems and Lambda?
- A. CodeCommit
- B. X-Ray
- C. CodeBuild
- D. CodeDeploy
Top
Q55: Which AWS service can be used to compile source code, run tests and package code?
- A. CodePipeline
- B. CodeCommit
- C. CodeBuild
- D. CodeDeploy
Top
Q56: How can your prevent CloudFormation from deleting your entire stack on failure? (Choose 2)
- A. Set the Rollback on failure radio button to No in the CloudFormation console
- B. Set Termination Protection to Enabled in the CloudFormation console
- C. Use the –disable-rollback flag with the AWS CLI
- D. Use the –enable-termination-protection protection flag with the AWS CLI
Q57: Which of the following practices allows multiple developers working on the same application to merge code changes frequently, without impacting each other and enables the identification of bugs early on in the release process?
- A. Continuous Integration
- B. Continuous Deployment
- C. Continuous Delivery
- D. Continuous Development
Q58: When deploying application code to EC2, the AppSpec file can be written in which language?
- A. JSON
- B. JSON or YAML
- C. XML
- D. YAML
Q59: Part of your CloudFormation deployment fails due to a mis-configuration, by defaukt what will happen?
- A. CloudFormation will rollback only the failed components
- B. CloudFormation will rollback the entire stack
- C. Failed component will remain available for debugging purposes
- D. CloudFormation will ask you if you want to continue with the deployment
Top
Q60: You want to receive an email whenever a user pushes code to CodeCommit repository, how can you configure this?
- A. Create a new SNS topic and configure it to poll for CodeCommit eveents. Ask all users to subscribe to the topic to receive notifications
- B. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SES which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
- C. Configure Notifications in the console, this will create a CloudWatch events rule to send a notification to a SNS topic which will trigger an email to be sent to the user.
- D. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SQS which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
Top
Q61: Which AWS service can be used to centrally store and version control your application source code, binaries and libraries
- A. CodeCommit
- B. CodeBuild
- C. CodePipeline
- D. ElasticFileSystem
Top
Q62: You are using CloudFormation to create a new S3 bucket, which of the following sections would you use to define the properties of your bucket?
- A. Conditions
- B. Parameters
- C. Outputs
- D. Resources
Top
Q63: You are deploying a number of EC2 and RDS instances using CloudFormation. Which section of the CloudFormation template would you use to define these?
- A. Transforms
- B. Outputs
- C. Resources
- D. Instances
Top
Q64: Which AWS service can be used to fully automate your entire release process?
- A. CodeDeploy
- B. CodePipeline
- C. CodeCommit
- D. CodeBuild
Top
Q65: You want to use the output of your CloudFormation stack as input to another CloudFormation stack. Which sections of the CloudFormation template would you use to help you configure this?
- A. Outputs
- B. Transforms
- C. Resources
- D. Exports
Top
Q66: You have some code located in an S3 bucket that you want to reference in your CloudFormation template. Which section of the template can you use to define this?
- A. Inputs
- B. Resources
- C. Transforms
- D. Files
Top
Q67: You are deploying an application to a number of Ec2 instances using CodeDeploy. What is the name of the file
used to specify source files and lifecycle hooks?
- A. buildspec.yml
- B. appspec.json
- C. appspec.yml
- D. buildspec.json
Q68: Which of the following approaches allows you to re-use pieces of CloudFormation code in multiple templates, for common use cases like provisioning a load balancer or web server?
- A. Share the code using an EBS volume
- B. Copy and paste the code into the template each time you need to use it
- C. Use a cloudformation nested stack
- D. Store the code you want to re-use in an AMI and reference the AMI from within your CloudFormation template.
Q69: In the CodeDeploy AppSpec file, what are hooks used for?
- A. To reference AWS resources that will be used during the deployment
- B. Hooks are reserved for future use
- C. To specify files you want to copy during the deployment.
- D. To specify, scripts or function that you want to run at set points in the deployment lifecycle
Q70: Which command can you use to encrypt a plain text file using CMK?
- A. aws kms-encrypt
- B. aws iam encrypt
- C. aws kms encrypt
- D. aws encrypt
Q72: Which of the following is an encrypted key used by KMS to encrypt your data
- A. Custmoer Mamaged Key
- B. Encryption Key
- C. Envelope Key
- D. Customer Master Key
Q73: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose 2)
- A. The Customer Master Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Envelope Key or Data Key
- B. The Envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
- C. The envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Customer Master Key.
- D. The Customer MasterKey is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
Q74: Which of the following statements is correct in relation to kMS/ (Choose 2)
- A. KMS Encryption keys are regional
- B. You cannot export your customer master key
- C. You can export your customer master key.
- D. KMS encryption Keys are global
Q75: A developer is preparing a deployment package for a Java implementation of an AWS Lambda function. What should the developer include in the deployment package? (Select TWO.)
A. Compiled application code
B. Java runtime environment
C. References to the event sources
D. Lambda execution role
E. Application dependencies
Q76: A developer uses AWS CodeDeploy to deploy a Python application to a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances that run behind an Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. What should the developer include in the CodeDeploy deployment package?
A. A launch template for the Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group
B. A CodeDeploy AppSpec file
C. An EC2 role that grants the application access to AWS services
D. An IAM policy that grants the application access to AWS services
Q76: A company is working on a project to enhance its serverless application development process. The company hosts applications on AWS Lambda. The development team regularly updates the Lambda code and wants to use stable code in production. Which combination of steps should the development team take to configure Lambda functions to meet both development and production requirements? (Select TWO.)
A. Create a new Lambda version every time a new code release needs testing.
B. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to a production-ready unqualified Amazon Resource Name (ARN) version. Point the Development alias to the $LATEST version.
C. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to the production-ready qualified Amazon Resource Name (ARN) version. Point the Development alias to the variable LAMBDA_TASK_ROOT.
D. Create a new Lambda layer every time a new code release needs testing.
E. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to a production-ready Lambda layer Amazon Resource Name (ARN). Point the Development alias to the $LATEST layer ARN.
Q77: Each time a developer publishes a new version of an AWS Lambda function, all the dependent event source mappings need to be updated with the reference to the new version’s Amazon Resource Name (ARN). These updates are time consuming and error-prone. Which combination of actions should the developer take to avoid performing these updates when publishing a new Lambda version? (Select TWO.)
A. Update event source mappings with the ARN of the Lambda layer.
B. Point a Lambda alias to a new version of the Lambda function.
C. Create a Lambda alias for each published version of the Lambda function.
D. Point a Lambda alias to a new Lambda function alias.
E. Update the event source mappings with the Lambda alias ARN.
Q78: A company wants to store sensitive user data in Amazon S3 and encrypt this data at rest. The company must manage the encryption keys and use Amazon S3 to perform the encryption. How can a developer meet these requirements?
A. Enable default encryption for the S3 bucket by using the option for server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C).
B. Enable client-side encryption with an encryption key. Upload the encrypted object to the S3 bucket.
C. Enable server-side encryption with Amazon S3 managed encryption keys (SSE-S3). Upload an object to the S3 bucket.
D. Enable server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C). Upload an object to the S3 bucket.
Q79: A company is developing a Python application that submits data to an Amazon DynamoDB table. The company requires client-side encryption of specific data items and end-to-end protection for the encrypted data in transit and at rest. Which combination of steps will meet the requirement for the encryption of specific data items? (Select TWO.)
A. Generate symmetric encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS).
B. Generate asymmetric encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS).
C. Use generated keys with the DynamoDB Encryption Client.
D. Use generated keys to configure DynamoDB table encryption with AWS managed customer master keys (CMKs).
E. Use generated keys to configure DynamoDB table encryption with AWS owned customer master keys (CMKs).
Q80: A company is developing a REST API with Amazon API Gateway. Access to the API should be limited to users in the existing Amazon Cognito user pool. Which combination of steps should a developer perform to secure the API? (Select TWO.)
A. Create an AWS Lambda authorizer for the API.
B. Create an Amazon Cognito authorizer for the API.
C. Configure the authorizer for the API resource.
D. Configure the API methods to use the authorizer.
E. Configure the authorizer for the API stage.
Q81: A developer is implementing a mobile app to provide personalized services to app users. The application code makes calls to Amazon S3 and Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS). Which options can the developer use to authenticate the app users? (Select TWO.)
A. Authenticate to the Amazon Cognito identity pool directly.
B. Authenticate to AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) directly.
C. Authenticate to the Amazon Cognito user pool directly.
D. Federate authentication by using Login with Amazon with the users managed with AWS Security Token Service (AWS STS).
E. Federate authentication by using Login with Amazon with the users managed with the Amazon Cognito user pool.
Question: A company is implementing several order processing workflows. Each workflow is implemented by using AWS Lambda functions for each task. Which combination of steps should a developer follow to implement these workflows? (Select TWO.)
A. Define a AWS Step Functions task for each Lambda function.
B. Define a AWS Step Functions task for each workflow.
C. Write code that polls the AWS Step Functions invocation to coordinate each workflow.
D. Define an AWS Step Functions state machine for each workflow.
E. Define an AWS Step Functions state machine for each Lambda function.
Answer: A. D.
Notes: Step Functions is based on state machines and tasks. A state machine is a workflow. Tasks perform work by coordinating with other AWS services, such as Lambda. A state machine is a workflow. It can be used to express a workflow as a number of states, their relationships, and their input and output. You can coordinate individual tasks with Step Functions by expressing your workflow as a finite state machine, written in the Amazon States Language.
ReferenceText: Getting Started with AWS Step Functions.
ReferenceUrl: https://aws.amazon.com/step-functions/getting-started/
Category: Development
Welcome to AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Preparation: Definition and Objectives, Top 100 Questions and Answers dump, White papers, Courses, Labs and Training Materials, Exam info and details, References, Jobs, Others AWS Certificates
What is the AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam?
This AWS Certified Developer-Associate Examination is intended for individuals who perform a Developer role. It validates an examinee’s ability to:
- Demonstrate an understanding of core AWS services, uses, and basic AWS architecture best practices
- Demonstrate proficiency in developing, deploying, and debugging cloud-based applications by using AWS
Recommended general IT knowledge
The target candidate should have the following:
– In-depth knowledge of at least one high-level programming language
– Understanding of application lifecycle management
– The ability to write code for serverless applications
– Understanding of the use of containers in the development process
Recommended AWS knowledge
The target candidate should be able to do the following:
- Use the AWS service APIs, CLI, and software development kits (SDKs) to write applications
- Identify key features of AWS services
- Understand the AWS shared responsibility model
- Use a continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline to deploy applications on AWS
- Use and interact with AWS services
- Apply basic understanding of cloud-native applications to write code
- Write code by using AWS security best practices (for example, use IAM roles instead of secret and access keys in the code)
- Author, maintain, and debug code modules on AWS
What is considered out of scope for the target candidate?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of related job tasks that the target candidate is not expected to be able to perform. These items are considered out of scope for the exam:
– Design architectures (for example, distributed system, microservices)
– Design and implement CI/CD pipelines
- Administer IAM users and groups
- Administer Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
- Design AWS networking infrastructure (for example, Amazon VPC, AWS Direct Connect)
- Understand compliance and licensing
Exam content
Response types
There are two types of questions on the exam:
– Multiple choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors)
– Multiple response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more response options
Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that a candidate with incomplete knowledge or skill might choose.
Distractors are generally plausible responses that match the content area.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing. The exam includes 50 questions that will affect your score.
Unscored content
The exam includes 15 unscored questions that do not affect your score. AWS collects information about candidate performance on these unscored questions to evaluate these questions for future use as scored questions. These unscored questions are not identified on the exam.
Exam results
The AWS Certified Developer – Associate (DVA-C01) exam is a pass or fail exam. The exam is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who follow certification industry best practices and guidelines.
Your results for the exam are reported as a scaled score of 100–1,000. The minimum passing score is 720.
Your score shows how you performed on the exam as a whole and whether you passed. Scaled scoring models help equate scores across multiple exam forms that might have slightly different difficulty levels.
Your score report could contain a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information is intended to provide general feedback about your exam performance. The exam uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to achieve a passing score in each section. You need to pass only the overall exam.
Each section of the exam has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than other sections have. The table contains general information that highlights your strengths and weaknesses. Use caution when interpreting section-level feedback.
Content outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives for the exam. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on the exam. However, additional context for each of the objectives is available to help guide your preparation for the exam. The following table lists the main content domains and their weightings. The table precedes the complete exam content outline, which includes the additional context.
The percentage in each domain represents only scored content.
Domain 1: Deployment 22%
Domain 2: Security 26%
Domain 3: Development with AWS Services 30%
Domain 4: Refactoring 10%
Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting 12%
Domain 1: Deployment
1.1 Deploy written code in AWS using existing CI/CD pipelines, processes, and patterns.
– Commit code to a repository and invoke build, test and/or deployment actions
– Use labels and branches for version and release management
– Use AWS CodePipeline to orchestrate workflows against different environments
– Apply AWS CodeCommit, AWS CodeBuild, AWS CodePipeline, AWS CodeStar, and AWS
CodeDeploy for CI/CD purposes
– Perform a roll back plan based on application deployment policy
1.2 Deploy applications using AWS Elastic Beanstalk.
– Utilize existing supported environments to define a new application stack
– Package the application
– Introduce a new application version into the Elastic Beanstalk environment
– Utilize a deployment policy to deploy an application version (i.e., all at once, rolling, rolling with batch, immutable)
– Validate application health using Elastic Beanstalk dashboard
– Use Amazon CloudWatch Logs to instrument application logging
1.3 Prepare the application deployment package to be deployed to AWS.
– Manage the dependencies of the code module (like environment variables, config files and static image files) within the package
– Outline the package/container directory structure and organize files appropriately
– Translate application resource requirements to AWS infrastructure parameters (e.g., memory, cores)
1.4 Deploy serverless applications.
– Given a use case, implement and launch an AWS Serverless Application Model (AWS SAM) template
– Manage environments in individual AWS services (e.g., Differentiate between Development, Test, and Production in Amazon API Gateway)
Domain 2: Security
2.1 Make authenticated calls to AWS services.
– Communicate required policy based on least privileges required by application.
– Assume an IAM role to access a service
– Use the software development kit (SDK) credential provider on-premises or in the cloud to access AWS services (local credentials vs. instance roles)
2.2 Implement encryption using AWS services.
– Encrypt data at rest (client side; server side; envelope encryption) using AWS services
– Encrypt data in transit
2.3 Implement application authentication and authorization.
– Add user sign-up and sign-in functionality for applications with Amazon Cognito identity or user pools
– Use Amazon Cognito-provided credentials to write code that access AWS services.
– Use Amazon Cognito sync to synchronize user profiles and data
– Use developer-authenticated identities to interact between end user devices, backend
authentication, and Amazon Cognito
Domain 3: Development with AWS Services
3.1 Write code for serverless applications.
– Compare and contrast server-based vs. serverless model (e.g., micro services, stateless nature of serverless applications, scaling serverless applications, and decoupling layers of serverless applications)
– Configure AWS Lambda functions by defining environment variables and parameters (e.g., memory, time out, runtime, handler)
– Create an API endpoint using Amazon API Gateway
– Create and test appropriate API actions like GET, POST using the API endpoint
– Apply Amazon DynamoDB concepts (e.g., tables, items, and attributes)
– Compute read/write capacity units for Amazon DynamoDB based on application requirements
– Associate an AWS Lambda function with an AWS event source (e.g., Amazon API Gateway, Amazon CloudWatch event, Amazon S3 events, Amazon Kinesis)
– Invoke an AWS Lambda function synchronously and asynchronously
3.2 Translate functional requirements into application design.
– Determine real-time vs. batch processing for a given use case
– Determine use of synchronous vs. asynchronous for a given use case
– Determine use of event vs. schedule/poll for a given use case
– Account for tradeoffs for consistency models in an application design
Domain 4: Refactoring
4.1 Optimize applications to best use AWS services and features.
Implement AWS caching services to optimize performance (e.g., Amazon ElastiCache, Amazon API Gateway cache)
Apply an Amazon S3 naming scheme for optimal read performance
4.2 Migrate existing application code to run on AWS.
– Isolate dependencies
– Run the application as one or more stateless processes
– Develop in order to enable horizontal scalability
– Externalize state
Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting
5.1 Write code that can be monitored.
– Create custom Amazon CloudWatch metrics
– Perform logging in a manner available to systems operators
– Instrument application source code to enable tracing in AWS X-Ray
5.2 Perform root cause analysis on faults found in testing or production.
– Interpret the outputs from the logging mechanism in AWS to identify errors in logs
– Check build and testing history in AWS services (e.g., AWS CodeBuild, AWS CodeDeploy, AWS CodePipeline) to identify issues
– Utilize AWS services (e.g., Amazon CloudWatch, VPC Flow Logs, and AWS X-Ray) to locate a specific faulty component
Which key tools, technologies, and concepts might be covered on the exam?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of the tools and technologies that could appear on the exam.
This list is subject to change and is provided to help you understand the general scope of services, features, or technologies on the exam.
The general tools and technologies in this list appear in no particular order.
AWS services are grouped according to their primary functions. While some of these technologies will likely be covered more than others on the exam, the order and placement of them in this list is no indication of relative weight or importance:
– Analytics
– Application Integration
– Containers
– Cost and Capacity Management
– Data Movement
– Developer Tools
– Instances (virtual machines)
– Management and Governance
– Networking and Content Delivery
– Security
– Serverless
AWS services and features
Analytics:
– Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES)
– Amazon Kinesis
Application Integration:
– Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events)
– Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
– Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
– AWS Step Functions
Compute:
– Amazon EC2
– AWS Elastic Beanstalk
– AWS Lambda
Containers:
– Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR)
– Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
– Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Services (Amazon EKS)
Database:
– Amazon DynamoDB
– Amazon ElastiCache
– Amazon RDS
Developer Tools:
– AWS CodeArtifact
– AWS CodeBuild
– AWS CodeCommit
– AWS CodeDeploy
– Amazon CodeGuru
– AWS CodePipeline
– AWS CodeStar
– AWS Fault Injection Simulator
– AWS X-Ray
Management and Governance:
– AWS CloudFormation
– Amazon CloudWatch
Networking and Content Delivery:
– Amazon API Gateway
– Amazon CloudFront
– Elastic Load Balancing
Security, Identity, and Compliance:
– Amazon Cognito
– AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
– AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
Storage:
– Amazon S3
Out-of-scope AWS services and features
The following is a non-exhaustive list of AWS services and features that are not covered on the exam.
These services and features do not represent every AWS offering that is excluded from the exam content.
Services or features that are entirely unrelated to the target job roles for the exam are excluded from this list because they are assumed to be irrelevant.
Out-of-scope AWS services and features include the following:
– AWS Application Discovery Service
– Amazon AppStream 2.0
– Amazon Chime
– Amazon Connect
– AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)
– AWS Device Farm
– Amazon Elastic Transcoder
– Amazon GameLift
– Amazon Lex
– Amazon Machine Learning (Amazon ML)
– AWS Managed Services
– Amazon Mobile Analytics
– Amazon Polly
– Amazon QuickSight
– Amazon Rekognition
– AWS Server Migration Service (AWS SMS)
– AWS Service Catalog
– AWS Shield Advanced
– AWS Shield Standard
– AWS Snow Family
– AWS Storage Gateway
– AWS WAF
– Amazon WorkMail
– Amazon WorkSpaces
To succeed with the real exam, do not memorize the answers below. It is very important that you understand why a question is right or wrong and the concepts behind it by carefully reading the reference documents in the answers.
AWS Certified Developer – Associate Practice Questions And Answers Dump
Q0: Your application reads commands from an SQS queue and sends them to web services hosted by your
partners. When a partner’s endpoint goes down, your application continually returns their commands to the queue. The repeated attempts to deliver these commands use up resources. Commands that can’t be delivered must not be lost.
How can you accommodate the partners’ broken web services without wasting your resources?
- A. Create a delay queue and set DelaySeconds to 30 seconds
- B. Requeue the message with a VisibilityTimeout of 30 seconds.
- C. Create a dead letter queue and set the Maximum Receives to 3.
- D. Requeue the message with a DelaySeconds of 30 seconds.
Top
Q1: A developer is writing an application that will store data in a DynamoDB table. The ratio of reads operations to write operations will be 1000 to 1, with the same data being accessed frequently.
What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?
- A. Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling
- B. Amazon DynamoDB cross-region replication
- C. Amazon DynamoDB Streams
- D. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator
Top
Q2: You are creating a DynamoDB table with the following attributes:
- PurchaseOrderNumber (partition key)
- CustomerID
- PurchaseDate
- TotalPurchaseValue
One of your applications must retrieve items from the table to calculate the total value of purchases for a
particular customer over a date range. What secondary index do you need to add to the table?
- A. Local secondary index with a partition key of CustomerID and sort key of PurchaseDate; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - B. Local secondary index with a partition key of PurchaseDate and sort key of CustomerID; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - C. Global secondary index with a partition key of CustomerID and sort key of PurchaseDate; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - D. Global secondary index with a partition key of PurchaseDate and sort key of CustomerID; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute
Top
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Q3: When referencing the remaining time left for a Lambda function to run within the function’s code you would use:
- A. The event object
- B. The timeLeft object
- C. The remains object
- D. The context object
Top
Q4: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?
- A. invocation, zone
- B. event, zone
- C. invocation, context
- D. event, context
Q5: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only via SFTP
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
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Q6: A Lambda deployment package contains:
- A. Function code, libraries, and runtime binaries
- B. Only function code
- C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
- D. Only libraries not included within the runtime
Q7: You are attempting to SSH into an EC2 instance that is located in a public subnet. However, you are currently receiving a timeout error trying to connect. What could be a possible cause of this connection issue?
- A. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic, but does not have an outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
- B. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND has an outbound rule that explicitly denies SSH traffic.
- C. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND the associated NACL has both an inbound and outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
- D. The security group associated with the EC2 instance does not have an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND the associated NACL does not have an outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
Top
Q8: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?
- A. Create and assign EIP to each instance
- B. Create and attach a second IGW to the VPC.
- C. Create and utilize a NAT Gateway
- D. Connect to a VPN
Top
Q9: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?
- A. Security Groups
- B. Route Tables
- C. Elastic Load Balancer
- D. Auto Scaling
Top
Q10: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Q11: You’re writing a script with an AWS SDK that uses the AWS API Actions and want to create AMIs for non-EBS backed AMIs for you. Which API call should occurs in the final process of creating an AMI?
- A. RegisterImage
- B. CreateImage
- C. ami-register-image
- D. ami-create-image
Q12: When dealing with session state in EC2-based applications using Elastic load balancers which option is generally thought of as the best practice for managing user sessions?
- A. Having the ELB distribute traffic to all EC2 instances and then having the instance check a caching solution like ElastiCache running Redis or Memcached for session information
- B. Permenantly assigning users to specific instances and always routing their traffic to those instances
- C. Using Application-generated cookies to tie a user session to a particular instance for the cookie duration
- D. Using Elastic Load Balancer generated cookies to tie a user session to a particular instance
Q13: Which API call would best be used to describe an Amazon Machine Image?
- A. ami-describe-image
- B. ami-describe-images
- C. DescribeImage
- D. DescribeImages
Q14: What is one key difference between an Amazon EBS-backed and an instance-store backed instance?
- A. Autoscaling requires using Amazon EBS-backed instances
- B. Virtual Private Cloud requires EBS backed instances
- C. Amazon EBS-backed instances can be stopped and restarted without losing data
- D. Instance-store backed instances can be stopped and restarted without losing data
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Q15: After having created a new Linux instance on Amazon EC2, and downloaded the .pem file (called Toto.pem) you try and SSH into your IP address (54.1.132.33) using the following command.
ssh -i my_key.pem ec2-user@52.2.222.22
However you receive the following error.
@@@@@@@@ WARNING: UNPROTECTED PRIVATE KEY FILE! @ @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
What is the most probable reason for this and how can you fix it?
- A. You do not have root access on your terminal and need to use the sudo option for this to work.
- B. You do not have enough permissions to perform the operation.
- C. Your key file is encrypted. You need to use the -u option for unencrypted not the -i option.
- D. Your key file must not be publicly viewable for SSH to work. You need to modify your .pem file to limit permissions.
Q16: You have an EBS root device on /dev/sda1 on one of your EC2 instances. You are having trouble with this particular instance and you need to either Stop/Start, Reboot or Terminate the instance but you do NOT want to lose any data that you have stored on /dev/sda1. However, you are unsure if changing the instance state in any of the aforementioned ways will cause you to lose data stored on the EBS volume. Which of the below statements best describes the effect each change of instance state would have on the data you have stored on /dev/sda1?
- A. Whether you stop/start, reboot or terminate the instance it does not matter because data on an EBS volume is not ephemeral and the data will not be lost regardless of what method is used.
- B. If you stop/start the instance the data will not be lost. However if you either terminate or reboot the instance the data will be lost.
- C. Whether you stop/start, reboot or terminate the instance it does not matter because data on an EBS volume is ephemeral and it will be lost no matter what method is used.
- D. The data will be lost if you terminate the instance, however the data will remain on /dev/sda1 if you reboot or stop/start the instance because data on an EBS volume is not ephemeral.
Q17: EC2 instances are launched from Amazon Machine Images (AMIs). A given public AMI:
- A. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same AWS availability zone as the AMI is stored
- B. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same country as the AMI is stored
- C. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same AWS region as the AMI is stored
- D. Can be used to launch EC2 instances in any AWS region
Q18: Which of the following statements is true about the Elastic File System (EFS)?
- A. EFS can scale out to meet capacity requirements and scale back down when no longer needed
- B. EFS can be used by multiple EC2 instances simultaneously
- C. EFS cannot be used by an instance using EBS
- D. EFS can be configured on an instance before launch just like an IAM role or EBS volumes
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Q19: IAM Policies, at a minimum, contain what elements?
- A. ID
- B. Effects
- C. Resources
- D. Sid
- E. Principle
- F. Actions
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Q20: What are the main benefits of IAM groups?
- A. The ability to create custom permission policies.
- B. Assigning IAM permission policies to more than one user at a time.
- C. Easier user/policy management.
- D. Allowing EC2 instances to gain access to S3.
Q21: What are benefits of using AWS STS?
- A. Grant access to AWS resources without having to create an IAM identity for them
- B. Since credentials are temporary, you don’t have to rotate or revoke them
- C. Temporary security credentials can be extended indefinitely
- D. Temporary security credentials can be restricted to a specific region
Q22: What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?
- A. Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling
- B. Amazon DynamoDB cross-region replication
- C. Amazon DynamoDB Streams
- D. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator
Top
Q23: A Developer has been asked to create an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment for a production web application which needs to handle thousands of requests. Currently the dev environment is running on a t1 micro instance. How can the Developer change the EC2 instance type to m4.large?
- A. Use CloudFormation to migrate the Amazon EC2 instance type of the environment from t1 micro to m4.large.
- B. Create a saved configuration file in Amazon S3 with the instance type as m4.large and use the same during environment creation.
- C. Change the instance type to m4.large in the configuration details page of the Create New Environment page.
- D. Change the instance type value for the environment to m4.large by using update autoscaling group CLI command.
Q24: What statements are true about Availability Zones (AZs) and Regions?
- A. There is only one AZ in each AWS Region
- B. AZs are geographically separated inside a region to help protect against natural disasters affecting more than one at a time.
- C. AZs can be moved between AWS Regions based on your needs
- D. There are (almost always) two or more AZs in each AWS Region
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Q25: An AWS Region contains:
- A. Edge Locations
- B. Data Centers
- C. AWS Services
- D. Availability Zones
Top
Q26: Which read request in DynamoDB returns a response with the most up-to-date data, reflecting the updates from all prior write operations that were successful?
- A. Eventual Consistent Reads
- B. Conditional reads for Consistency
- C. Strongly Consistent Reads
- D. Not possible
Top
Q27: You’ ve been asked to move an existing development environment on the AWS Cloud. This environment consists mainly of Docker based containers. You need to ensure that minimum effort is taken during the migration process. Which of the following step would you consider for this requirement?
- A. Create an Opswork stack and deploy the Docker containers
- B. Create an application and Environment for the Docker containers in the Elastic Beanstalk service
- C. Create an EC2 Instance. Install Docker and deploy the necessary containers.
- D. Create an EC2 Instance. Install Docker and deploy the necessary containers. Add an Autoscaling Group for scalability of the containers.
Top
Q28: You’ve written an application that uploads objects onto an S3 bucket. The size of the object varies between 200 – 500 MB. You’ve seen that the application sometimes takes a longer than expected time to upload the object. You want to improve the performance of the application. Which of the following would you consider?
- A. Create multiple threads and upload the objects in the multiple threads
- B. Write the items in batches for better performance
- C. Use the Multipart upload API
- D. Enable versioning on the Bucket
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Top
Q29: A security system monitors 600 cameras, saving image metadata every 1 minute to an Amazon DynamoDb table. Each sample involves 1kb of data, and the data writes are evenly distributed over time. How much write throughput is required for the target table?
- A. 6000
- B. 10
- C. 3600
- D. 600
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Q30: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?
- A. invocation, zone
- B. event, zone
- C. invocation, context
- D. event, context
Top
Q31: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only via SFTP
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Top
Q32: A Lambda deployment package contains:
- A. Function code, libraries, and runtime binaries
- B. Only function code
- C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
- D. Only libraries not included within the runtime
Top
Q33: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?
- A. Create and assign EIP to each instance
- B. Create and attach a second IGW to the VPC.
- C. Create and utilize a NAT Gateway
- D. Connect to a VPN
Top
Q34: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?
- A. Security Groups
- B. Route Tables
- C. Elastic Load Balancer
- D. Auto Scaling
Top
Q30: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Answer:
Top
Q31: An organization is using an Amazon ElastiCache cluster in front of their Amazon RDS instance. The organization would like the Developer to implement logic into the code so that the cluster only retrieves data from RDS when there is a cache miss. What strategy can the Developer implement to achieve this?
- A. Lazy loading
- B. Write-through
- C. Error retries
- D. Exponential backoff
Answer:
Top
Q32: A developer is writing an application that will run on Ec2 instances and read messages from SQS queue. The nessages will arrive every 15-60 seconds. How should the Developer efficiently query the queue for new messages?
- A. Use long polling
- B. Set a custom visibility timeout
- C. Use short polling
- D. Implement exponential backoff
Top
Q33: You are using AWS SAM to define a Lambda function and configure CodeDeploy to manage deployment patterns. With new Lambda function working as per expectation which of the following will shift traffic from original Lambda function to new Lambda function in the shortest time frame?
- A. Canary10Percent5Minutes
- B. Linear10PercentEvery10Minutes
- C. Canary10Percent15Minutes
- D. Linear10PercentEvery1Minute
Top
Q34: You are using AWS SAM templates to deploy a serverless application. Which of the following resource will embed application from Amazon S3 buckets?
- A. AWS::Serverless::Api
- B. AWS::Serverless::Application
- C. AWS::Serverless::Layerversion
- D. AWS::Serverless::Function
Top
Q35: You are using AWS Envelope Encryption for encrypting all sensitive data. Which of the followings is True with regards to Envelope Encryption?
- A. Data is encrypted be encrypting Data key which is further encrypted using encrypted Master Key.
- B. Data is encrypted by plaintext Data key which is further encrypted using encrypted Master Key.
- C. Data is encrypted by encrypted Data key which is further encrypted using plaintext Master Key.
- D. Data is encrypted by plaintext Data key which is further encrypted using plaintext Master Key.
Top
Q36: You are developing an application that will be comprised of the following architecture –
- A set of Ec2 instances to process the videos.
- These (Ec2 instances) will be spun up by an autoscaling group.
- SQS Queues to maintain the processing messages.
- There will be 2 pricing tiers.
How will you ensure that the premium customers videos are given more preference?
- A. Create 2 Autoscaling Groups, one for normal and one for premium customers
- B. Create 2 set of Ec2 Instances, one for normal and one for premium customers
- C. Create 2 SQS queus, one for normal and one for premium customers
- D. Create 2 Elastic Load Balancers, one for normal and one for premium customers.
Top
Q37: You are developing an application that will interact with a DynamoDB table. The table is going to take in a lot of read and write operations. Which of the following would be the ideal partition key for the DynamoDB table to ensure ideal performance?
- A. CustomerID
- B. CustomerName
- C. Location
- D. Age
Top
Q38: A developer is making use of AWS services to develop an application. He has been asked to develop the application in a manner to compensate any network delays. Which of the following two mechanisms should he implement in the application?
- A. Multiple SQS queues
- B. Exponential backoff algorithm
- C. Retries in your application code
- D. Consider using the Java sdk.
Top
Q39: An application is being developed that is going to write data to a DynamoDB table. You have to setup the read and write throughput for the table. Data is going to be read at the rate of 300 items every 30 seconds. Each item is of size 6KB. The reads can be eventual consistent reads. What should be the read capacity that needs to be set on the table?
- A. 10
- B. 20
- C. 6
- D. 30
Top
Q40: You are in charge of deploying an application that will be hosted on an EC2 Instance and sit behind an Elastic Load balancer. You have been requested to monitor the incoming connections to the Elastic Load Balancer. Which of the below options can suffice this requirement?
- A. Use AWS CloudTrail with your load balancer
- B. Enable access logs on the load balancer
- C. Use a CloudWatch Logs Agent
- D. Create a custom metric CloudWatch lter on your load balancer
Top
Q41: A static web site has been hosted on a bucket and is now being accessed by users. One of the web pages javascript section has been changed to access data which is hosted in another S3 bucket. Now that same web page is no longer loading in the browser. Which of the following can help alleviate the error?
- A. Enable versioning for the underlying S3 bucket.
- B. Enable Replication so that the objects get replicated to the other bucket
- C. Enable CORS for the bucket
- D. Change the Bucket policy for the bucket to allow access from the other bucket
Top
Q42: Your mobile application includes a photo-sharing service that is expecting tens of thousands of users at launch. You will leverage Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3) for storage of the user Images, and you must decide how to authenticate and authorize your users for access to these images. You also need to manage the storage of these images. Which two of the following approaches should you use? Choose two answers from the options below
- A. Create an Amazon S3 bucket per user, and use your application to generate the S3 URL for the appropriate content.
- B. Use AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) user accounts as your application-level user database, and offload the burden of authentication from your application code.
- C. Authenticate your users at the application level, and use AWS Security Token Service (STS)to grant token-based authorization to S3 objects.
- D. Authenticate your users at the application level, and send an SMS token message to the user. Create an Amazon S3 bucket with the same name as the SMS message token, and move the user’s objects to that bucket.
Top
Q43: Your current log analysis application takes more than four hours to generate a report of the top 10 users of your web application. You have been asked to implement a system that can report this information in real time, ensure that the report is always up to date, and handle increases in the number of requests to your web application. Choose the option that is cost-effective and can fulfill the requirements.
- A. Publish your data to CloudWatch Logs, and congure your application to Autoscale to handle the load on demand.
- B. Publish your log data to an Amazon S3 bucket. Use AWS CloudFormation to create an Auto Scaling group to scale your post-processing application which is congured to pull down your log les stored an Amazon S3
- C. Post your log data to an Amazon Kinesis data stream, and subscribe your log-processing application so that is congured to process your logging data.
- D. Create a multi-AZ Amazon RDS MySQL cluster, post the logging data to MySQL, and run a map reduce job to retrieve the required information on user counts.
Answer:
Top
Q44: You’ve been instructed to develop a mobile application that will make use of AWS services. You need to decide on a data store to store the user sessions. Which of the following would be an ideal data store for session management?
- A. AWS Simple Storage Service
- B. AWS DynamoDB
- C. AWS RDS
- D. AWS Redshift
Answer:
Top
Q45: Your application currently interacts with a DynamoDB table. Records are inserted into the table via the application. There is now a requirement to ensure that whenever items are updated in the DynamoDB primary table , another record is inserted into a secondary table. Which of the below feature should be used when developing such a solution?
- A. AWS DynamoDB Encryption
- B. AWS DynamoDB Streams
- C. AWS DynamoDB Accelerator
- D. AWSTable Accelerator
Top
Q46: An application has been making use of AWS DynamoDB for its back-end data store. The size of the table has now grown to 20 GB , and the scans on the table are causing throttling errors. Which of the following should now be implemented to avoid such errors?
- A. Large Page size
- B. Reduced page size
- C. Parallel Scans
- D. Sequential scans
Top
Q47: Which of the following is correct way of passing a stage variable to an HTTP URL ? (Select TWO.)
- A. http://example.com/${}/prod
- B. http://example.com/${stageVariables.}/prod
- C. http://${stageVariables.}.example.com/dev/operation
- D. http://${stageVariables}.example.com/dev/operation
- E. http://${}.example.com/dev/operation
- F. http://example.com/${stageVariables}/prod
Top
Q48: Your company is planning on creating new development environments in AWS. They want to make use of their existing Chef recipes which they use for their on-premise configuration for servers in AWS. Which of the following service would be ideal to use in this regard?
- A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
- B. AWS OpsWork
- C. AWS Cloudformation
- D. AWS SQS
Top
Q49: Your company has developed a web application and is hosting it in an Amazon S3 bucket configured for static website hosting. The users can log in to this app using their Google/Facebook login accounts. The application is using the AWS SDK for JavaScript in the browser to access data stored in an Amazon DynamoDB table. How can you ensure that API keys for access to your data in DynamoDB are kept secure?
- A. Create an Amazon S3 role in IAM with access to the specific DynamoDB tables, and assign it to the bucket hosting your website
- B. Configure S3 bucket tags with your AWS access keys for your bucket hosing your website so that the application can query them for access.
- C. Configure a web identity federation role within IAM to enable access to the correct DynamoDB resources and retrieve temporary credentials
- D. Store AWS keys in global variables within your application and configure the application to use these credentials when making requests.
Top
Q50: Your application currently makes use of AWS Cognito for managing user identities. You want to analyze the information that is stored in AWS Cognito for your application. Which of the following features of AWS Cognito should you use for this purpose?
- A. Cognito Data
- B. Cognito Events
- C. Cognito Streams
- D. Cognito Callbacks
Top
Q51: You’ve developed a set of scripts using AWS Lambda. These scripts need to access EC2 Instances in a VPC. Which of the following needs to be done to ensure that the AWS Lambda function can access the resources in the VPC. Choose 2 answers from the options given below
- A. Ensure that the subnet ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- B. Ensure that the NACL ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- C. Ensure that the Security Group ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- D. Ensure that the VPC Flow Log ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
Top
Q52: You’ve currently been tasked to migrate an existing on-premise environment into Elastic Beanstalk. The application does not make use of Docker containers. You also can’t see any relevant environments in the beanstalk service that would be suitable to host your application. What should you consider doing in this case?
- A. Migrate your application to using Docker containers and then migrate the app to the Elastic Beanstalk environment.
- B. Consider using Cloudformation to deploy your environment to Elastic Beanstalk
- C. Consider using Packer to create a custom platform
- D. Consider deploying your application using the Elastic Container Service
Top
Q53: Company B is writing 10 items to the Dynamo DB table every second. Each item is 15.5Kb in size. What would be the required provisioned write throughput for best performance? Choose the correct answer from the options below.
- A. 10
- B. 160
- C. 155
- D. 16
Top
Q54: Which AWS Service can be used to automatically install your application code onto EC2, on premises systems and Lambda?
- A. CodeCommit
- B. X-Ray
- C. CodeBuild
- D. CodeDeploy
Top
Q55: Which AWS service can be used to compile source code, run tests and package code?
- A. CodePipeline
- B. CodeCommit
- C. CodeBuild
- D. CodeDeploy
Top
Q56: How can your prevent CloudFormation from deleting your entire stack on failure? (Choose 2)
- A. Set the Rollback on failure radio button to No in the CloudFormation console
- B. Set Termination Protection to Enabled in the CloudFormation console
- C. Use the –disable-rollback flag with the AWS CLI
- D. Use the –enable-termination-protection protection flag with the AWS CLI
Q57: Which of the following practices allows multiple developers working on the same application to merge code changes frequently, without impacting each other and enables the identification of bugs early on in the release process?
- A. Continuous Integration
- B. Continuous Deployment
- C. Continuous Delivery
- D. Continuous Development
Q58: When deploying application code to EC2, the AppSpec file can be written in which language?
- A. JSON
- B. JSON or YAML
- C. XML
- D. YAML
Q59: Part of your CloudFormation deployment fails due to a mis-configuration, by defaukt what will happen?
- A. CloudFormation will rollback only the failed components
- B. CloudFormation will rollback the entire stack
- C. Failed component will remain available for debugging purposes
- D. CloudFormation will ask you if you want to continue with the deployment
Top
Q60: You want to receive an email whenever a user pushes code to CodeCommit repository, how can you configure this?
- A. Create a new SNS topic and configure it to poll for CodeCommit eveents. Ask all users to subscribe to the topic to receive notifications
- B. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SES which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
- C. Configure Notifications in the console, this will create a CloudWatch events rule to send a notification to a SNS topic which will trigger an email to be sent to the user.
- D. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SQS which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
Top
Q61: Which AWS service can be used to centrally store and version control your application source code, binaries and libraries
- A. CodeCommit
- B. CodeBuild
- C. CodePipeline
- D. ElasticFileSystem
Top
Q62: You are using CloudFormation to create a new S3 bucket, which of the following sections would you use to define the properties of your bucket?
- A. Conditions
- B. Parameters
- C. Outputs
- D. Resources
Top
Q63: You are deploying a number of EC2 and RDS instances using CloudFormation. Which section of the CloudFormation template would you use to define these?
- A. Transforms
- B. Outputs
- C. Resources
- D. Instances
Top
Q64: Which AWS service can be used to fully automate your entire release process?
- A. CodeDeploy
- B. CodePipeline
- C. CodeCommit
- D. CodeBuild
Top
Q65: You want to use the output of your CloudFormation stack as input to another CloudFormation stack. Which sections of the CloudFormation template would you use to help you configure this?
- A. Outputs
- B. Transforms
- C. Resources
- D. Exports
Top
Q66: You have some code located in an S3 bucket that you want to reference in your CloudFormation template. Which section of the template can you use to define this?
- A. Inputs
- B. Resources
- C. Transforms
- D. Files
Top
Q67: You are deploying an application to a number of Ec2 instances using CodeDeploy. What is the name of the file
used to specify source files and lifecycle hooks?
- A. buildspec.yml
- B. appspec.json
- C. appspec.yml
- D. buildspec.json
Q68: Which of the following approaches allows you to re-use pieces of CloudFormation code in multiple templates, for common use cases like provisioning a load balancer or web server?
- A. Share the code using an EBS volume
- B. Copy and paste the code into the template each time you need to use it
- C. Use a cloudformation nested stack
- D. Store the code you want to re-use in an AMI and reference the AMI from within your CloudFormation template.
Q69: In the CodeDeploy AppSpec file, what are hooks used for?
- A. To reference AWS resources that will be used during the deployment
- B. Hooks are reserved for future use
- C. To specify files you want to copy during the deployment.
- D. To specify, scripts or function that you want to run at set points in the deployment lifecycle
Q70: Which command can you use to encrypt a plain text file using CMK?
- A. aws kms-encrypt
- B. aws iam encrypt
- C. aws kms encrypt
- D. aws encrypt
Q72: Which of the following is an encrypted key used by KMS to encrypt your data
- A. Custmoer Mamaged Key
- B. Encryption Key
- C. Envelope Key
- D. Customer Master Key
Q73: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose 2)
- A. The Customer Master Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Envelope Key or Data Key
- B. The Envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
- C. The envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Customer Master Key.
- D. The Customer MasterKey is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
Q74: Which of the following statements is correct in relation to kMS/ (Choose 2)
- A. KMS Encryption keys are regional
- B. You cannot export your customer master key
- C. You can export your customer master key.
- D. KMS encryption Keys are global
Q75: A developer is preparing a deployment package for a Java implementation of an AWS Lambda function. What should the developer include in the deployment package? (Select TWO.)
A. Compiled application code
B. Java runtime environment
C. References to the event sources
D. Lambda execution role
E. Application dependencies
Q76: A developer uses AWS CodeDeploy to deploy a Python application to a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances that run behind an Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. What should the developer include in the CodeDeploy deployment package?
A. A launch template for the Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group
B. A CodeDeploy AppSpec file
C. An EC2 role that grants the application access to AWS services
D. An IAM policy that grants the application access to AWS services
Q76: A company is working on a project to enhance its serverless application development process. The company hosts applications on AWS Lambda. The development team regularly updates the Lambda code and wants to use stable code in production. Which combination of steps should the development team take to configure Lambda functions to meet both development and production requirements? (Select TWO.)
A. Create a new Lambda version every time a new code release needs testing.
B. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to a production-ready unqualified Amazon Resource Name (ARN) version. Point the Development alias to the $LATEST version.
C. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to the production-ready qualified Amazon Resource Name (ARN) version. Point the Development alias to the variable LAMBDA_TASK_ROOT.
D. Create a new Lambda layer every time a new code release needs testing.
E. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to a production-ready Lambda layer Amazon Resource Name (ARN). Point the Development alias to the $LATEST layer ARN.
Q77: Each time a developer publishes a new version of an AWS Lambda function, all the dependent event source mappings need to be updated with the reference to the new version’s Amazon Resource Name (ARN). These updates are time consuming and error-prone. Which combination of actions should the developer take to avoid performing these updates when publishing a new Lambda version? (Select TWO.)
A. Update event source mappings with the ARN of the Lambda layer.
B. Point a Lambda alias to a new version of the Lambda function.
C. Create a Lambda alias for each published version of the Lambda function.
D. Point a Lambda alias to a new Lambda function alias.
E. Update the event source mappings with the Lambda alias ARN.
Q78: A company wants to store sensitive user data in Amazon S3 and encrypt this data at rest. The company must manage the encryption keys and use Amazon S3 to perform the encryption. How can a developer meet these requirements?
A. Enable default encryption for the S3 bucket by using the option for server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C).
B. Enable client-side encryption with an encryption key. Upload the encrypted object to the S3 bucket.
C. Enable server-side encryption with Amazon S3 managed encryption keys (SSE-S3). Upload an object to the S3 bucket.
D. Enable server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C). Upload an object to the S3 bucket.
Q79: A company is developing a Python application that submits data to an Amazon DynamoDB table. The company requires client-side encryption of specific data items and end-to-end protection for the encrypted data in transit and at rest. Which combination of steps will meet the requirement for the encryption of specific data items? (Select TWO.)
A. Generate symmetric encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS).
B. Generate asymmetric encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS).
C. Use generated keys with the DynamoDB Encryption Client.
D. Use generated keys to configure DynamoDB table encryption with AWS managed customer master keys (CMKs).
E. Use generated keys to configure DynamoDB table encryption with AWS owned customer master keys (CMKs).
Q80: A company is developing a REST API with Amazon API Gateway. Access to the API should be limited to users in the existing Amazon Cognito user pool. Which combination of steps should a developer perform to secure the API? (Select TWO.)
A. Create an AWS Lambda authorizer for the API.
B. Create an Amazon Cognito authorizer for the API.
C. Configure the authorizer for the API resource.
D. Configure the API methods to use the authorizer.
E. Configure the authorizer for the API stage.
Q81: A developer is implementing a mobile app to provide personalized services to app users. The application code makes calls to Amazon S3 and Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS). Which options can the developer use to authenticate the app users? (Select TWO.)
A. Authenticate to the Amazon Cognito identity pool directly.
B. Authenticate to AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) directly.
C. Authenticate to the Amazon Cognito user pool directly.
D. Federate authentication by using Login with Amazon with the users managed with AWS Security Token Service (AWS STS).
E. Federate authentication by using Login with Amazon with the users managed with the Amazon Cognito user pool.
Q82: A company is implementing several order processing workflows. Each workflow is implemented by using AWS Lambda functions for each task. Which combination of steps should a developer follow to implement these workflows? (Select TWO.)
A. Define a AWS Step Functions task for each Lambda function.
B. Define a AWS Step Functions task for each workflow.
C. Write code that polls the AWS Step Functions invocation to coordinate each workflow.
D. Define an AWS Step Functions state machine for each workflow.
E. Define an AWS Step Functions state machine for each Lambda function.
Q83: A company is migrating a web service to the AWS Cloud. The web service accepts requests by using HTTP (port 80). The company wants to use an AWS Lambda function to process HTTP requests. Which application design will satisfy these requirements?
A. Create an Amazon API Gateway API. Configure proxy integration with the Lambda function.
B. Create an Amazon API Gateway API. Configure non-proxy integration with the Lambda function.
C. Configure the Lambda function to listen to inbound network connections on port 80.
D. Configure the Lambda function as a target in the Application Load Balancer target group.
Q84: A company is developing an image processing application. When an image is uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket, a number of independent and separate services must be invoked to process the image. The services do not have to be available immediately, but they must process every image. Which application design satisfies these requirements?
A. Configure an Amazon S3 event notification that publishes to an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Each service pulls the message from the same queue.
B. Configure an Amazon S3 event notification that publishes to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Each service subscribes to the same topic.
C. Configure an Amazon S3 event notification that publishes to an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Subscribe a separate Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic for each service to an Amazon SQS queue.
D. Configure an Amazon S3 event notification that publishes to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Subscribe a separate Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue for each service to the Amazon SNS topic.
Q85: A developer wants to implement Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling for a Multi-AZ web application. However, the developer is concerned that user sessions will be lost during scale-in events. How can the developer store the session state and share it across the EC2 instances?
A. Write the sessions to an Amazon Kinesis data stream. Configure the application to poll the stream.
B. Publish the sessions to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Subscribe each instance in the group to the topic.
C. Store the sessions in an Amazon ElastiCache for Memcached cluster. Configure the application to use the Memcached API.
D. Write the sessions to an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume. Mount the volume to each instance in the group.
Q86: A developer is integrating a legacy web application that runs on a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances with an Amazon DynamoDB table. There is no AWS SDK for the programming language that was used to implement the web application. Which combination of steps should the developer perform to make an API call to Amazon DynamoDB from the instances? (Select TWO.)
A. Make an HTTPS POST request to the DynamoDB API endpoint for the AWS Region. In the request body, include an XML document that contains the request attributes.
B. Make an HTTPS POST request to the DynamoDB API endpoint for the AWS Region. In the request body, include a JSON document that contains the request attributes.
C. Sign the requests by using AWS access keys and Signature Version 4.
D. Use an EC2 SSH key to calculate Signature Version 4 of the request.
E. Provide the signature value through the HTTP X-API-Key header.
Q87: A developer has written several custom applications that read and write to the same Amazon DynamoDB table. Each time the data in the DynamoDB table is modified, this change should be sent to an external API. Which combination of steps should the developer perform to accomplish this task? (Select TWO.)
A. Configure an AWS Lambda function to poll the stream and call the external API.
B. Configure an event in Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) that publishes the change to an Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka (Amazon MSK) data stream.
C. Create a trigger in the DynamoDB table to publish the change to an Amazon Kinesis data stream.
D. Deliver the stream to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic and subscribe the API to the topic.
E. Enable DynamoDB Streams on the table.
Q88: A company is migrating the create, read, update, and delete (CRUD) functionality of an existing Java web application to AWS Lambda. Which minimal code refactoring is necessary for the CRUD operations to run in the Lambda function?
A. Implement a Lambda handler function.
B. Import an AWS X-Ray package.
C. Rewrite the application code in Python.
D. Add a reference to the Lambda execution role.
Q89: A company plans to use AWS log monitoring services to monitor an application that runs on premises. Currently, the application runs on a recent version of Ubuntu Server and outputs the logs to a local file. Which combination of steps should a developer perform to accomplish this goal? (Select TWO.)
A. Update the application code to include calls to the agent API for log collection.
B. Install the Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) container agent on the server.
C. Install the unified Amazon CloudWatch agent on the server.
D. Configure the long-term AWS credentials on the server to enable log collection by the agent.
E. Attach an IAM role to the server to enable log collection by the agent.
Q90: A developer wants to monitor invocations of an AWS Lambda function by using Amazon CloudWatch Logs. The developer added a number of print statements to the function code that write the logging information to the stdout stream. After running the function, the developer does not see any log data being generated. Why does the log data NOT appear in the CloudWatch logs?
A. The log data is not written to the stderr stream.
B. Lambda function logging is not automatically enabled.
C. The execution role for the Lambda function did not grant permissions to write log data to CloudWatch Logs.
D. The Lambda function outputs the logs to an Amazon S3 bucket.
Q91: Which of the following are best practices you should implement into ongoing deployments of your application? (Select THREE.)
A. Use stage variables to manage secrets across environments
B. Create account-specific AWS SAM templates for each environment
C. Use an AutoPublish alias
D. Use traffic shifting with pre- and post-deployment hooks
E. Test throughout the pipeline
Q92: You are handing off maintenance of your new serverless application to an incoming team lead. Which recommendations would you make? (Select THREE.)
A. Keep up to date with the quotas and payload sizes for each AWS service you are using
B. Analyze production access patterns to identify potential improvements
C. Design your services to extend their life as long as possible
D. Minimize changes to your production application
E. Compare the value of using the latest first-class integrations versus using Lambda between AWS services
Top
Q56: How can your prevent CloudFormation from deleting your entire stack on failure? (Choose 2)
- A. Set the Rollback on failure radio button to No in the CloudFormation console
- B. Set Termination Protection to Enabled in the CloudFormation console
- C. Use the –disable-rollback flag with the AWS CLI
- D. Use the –enable-termination-protection protection flag with the AWS CLI
Q57: Which of the following practices allows multiple developers working on the same application to merge code changes frequently, without impacting each other and enables the identification of bugs early on in the release process?
- A. Continuous Integration
- B. Continuous Deployment
- C. Continuous Delivery
- D. Continuous Development
Q58: When deploying application code to EC2, the AppSpec file can be written in which language?
- A. JSON
- B. JSON or YAML
- C. XML
- D. YAML
Q59: Part of your CloudFormation deployment fails due to a mis-configuration, by defaukt what will happen?
- A. CloudFormation will rollback only the failed components
- B. CloudFormation will rollback the entire stack
- C. Failed component will remain available for debugging purposes
- D. CloudFormation will ask you if you want to continue with the deployment
Top
Q60: You want to receive an email whenever a user pushes code to CodeCommit repository, how can you configure this?
- A. Create a new SNS topic and configure it to poll for CodeCommit eveents. Ask all users to subscribe to the topic to receive notifications
- B. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SES which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
- C. Configure Notifications in the console, this will create a CloudWatch events rule to send a notification to a SNS topic which will trigger an email to be sent to the user.
- D. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SQS which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
Top
Q61: Which AWS service can be used to centrally store and version control your application source code, binaries and libraries
- A. CodeCommit
- B. CodeBuild
- C. CodePipeline
- D. ElasticFileSystem
Top
Q62: You are using CloudFormation to create a new S3 bucket, which of the following sections would you use to define the properties of your bucket?
- A. Conditions
- B. Parameters
- C. Outputs
- D. Resources
Top
Q63: You are deploying a number of EC2 and RDS instances using CloudFormation. Which section of the CloudFormation template would you use to define these?
- A. Transforms
- B. Outputs
- C. Resources
- D. Instances
Top
Q64: Which AWS service can be used to fully automate your entire release process?
- A. CodeDeploy
- B. CodePipeline
- C. CodeCommit
- D. CodeBuild
Top
Q65: You want to use the output of your CloudFormation stack as input to another CloudFormation stack. Which sections of the CloudFormation template would you use to help you configure this?
- A. Outputs
- B. Transforms
- C. Resources
- D. Exports
Top
Q66: You have some code located in an S3 bucket that you want to reference in your CloudFormation template. Which section of the template can you use to define this?
- A. Inputs
- B. Resources
- C. Transforms
- D. Files
Top
Q67: You are deploying an application to a number of Ec2 instances using CodeDeploy. What is the name of the file
used to specify source files and lifecycle hooks?
- A. buildspec.yml
- B. appspec.json
- C. appspec.yml
- D. buildspec.json
Q68: Which of the following approaches allows you to re-use pieces of CloudFormation code in multiple templates, for common use cases like provisioning a load balancer or web server?
- A. Share the code using an EBS volume
- B. Copy and paste the code into the template each time you need to use it
- C. Use a cloudformation nested stack
- D. Store the code you want to re-use in an AMI and reference the AMI from within your CloudFormation template.
Q69: In the CodeDeploy AppSpec file, what are hooks used for?
- A. To reference AWS resources that will be used during the deployment
- B. Hooks are reserved for future use
- C. To specify files you want to copy during the deployment.
- D. To specify, scripts or function that you want to run at set points in the deployment lifecycle
Q70: Which command can you use to encrypt a plain text file using CMK?
- A. aws kms-encrypt
- B. aws iam encrypt
- C. aws kms encrypt
- D. aws encrypt
Q72: Which of the following is an encrypted key used by KMS to encrypt your data
- A. Custmoer Mamaged Key
- B. Encryption Key
- C. Envelope Key
- D. Customer Master Key
Q73: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose 2)
- A. The Customer Master Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Envelope Key or Data Key
- B. The Envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
- C. The envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Customer Master Key.
- D. The Customer MasterKey is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
Q74: Which of the following statements is correct in relation to kMS/ (Choose 2)
- A. KMS Encryption keys are regional
- B. You cannot export your customer master key
- C. You can export your customer master key.
- D. KMS encryption Keys are global
Q75: A developer is preparing a deployment package for a Java implementation of an AWS Lambda function. What should the developer include in the deployment package? (Select TWO.)
A. Compiled application code
B. Java runtime environment
C. References to the event sources
D. Lambda execution role
E. Application dependencies
Q76: A developer uses AWS CodeDeploy to deploy a Python application to a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances that run behind an Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. What should the developer include in the CodeDeploy deployment package?
A. A launch template for the Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group
B. A CodeDeploy AppSpec file
C. An EC2 role that grants the application access to AWS services
D. An IAM policy that grants the application access to AWS services
Q76: A company is working on a project to enhance its serverless application development process. The company hosts applications on AWS Lambda. The development team regularly updates the Lambda code and wants to use stable code in production. Which combination of steps should the development team take to configure Lambda functions to meet both development and production requirements? (Select TWO.)
A. Create a new Lambda version every time a new code release needs testing.
B. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to a production-ready unqualified Amazon Resource Name (ARN) version. Point the Development alias to the $LATEST version.
C. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to the production-ready qualified Amazon Resource Name (ARN) version. Point the Development alias to the variable LAMBDA_TASK_ROOT.
D. Create a new Lambda layer every time a new code release needs testing.
E. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to a production-ready Lambda layer Amazon Resource Name (ARN). Point the Development alias to the $LATEST layer ARN.
Q77: Each time a developer publishes a new version of an AWS Lambda function, all the dependent event source mappings need to be updated with the reference to the new version’s Amazon Resource Name (ARN). These updates are time consuming and error-prone. Which combination of actions should the developer take to avoid performing these updates when publishing a new Lambda version? (Select TWO.)
A. Update event source mappings with the ARN of the Lambda layer.
B. Point a Lambda alias to a new version of the Lambda function.
C. Create a Lambda alias for each published version of the Lambda function.
D. Point a Lambda alias to a new Lambda function alias.
E. Update the event source mappings with the Lambda alias ARN.
Q78: A company wants to store sensitive user data in Amazon S3 and encrypt this data at rest. The company must manage the encryption keys and use Amazon S3 to perform the encryption. How can a developer meet these requirements?
A. Enable default encryption for the S3 bucket by using the option for server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C).
B. Enable client-side encryption with an encryption key. Upload the encrypted object to the S3 bucket.
C. Enable server-side encryption with Amazon S3 managed encryption keys (SSE-S3). Upload an object to the S3 bucket.
D. Enable server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C). Upload an object to the S3 bucket.
Q79: A company is developing a Python application that submits data to an Amazon DynamoDB table. The company requires client-side encryption of specific data items and end-to-end protection for the encrypted data in transit and at rest. Which combination of steps will meet the requirement for the encryption of specific data items? (Select TWO.)
A. Generate symmetric encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS).
B. Generate asymmetric encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS).
C. Use generated keys with the DynamoDB Encryption Client.
D. Use generated keys to configure DynamoDB table encryption with AWS managed customer master keys (CMKs).
E. Use generated keys to configure DynamoDB table encryption with AWS owned customer master keys (CMKs).
Q80: A company is developing a REST API with Amazon API Gateway. Access to the API should be limited to users in the existing Amazon Cognito user pool. Which combination of steps should a developer perform to secure the API? (Select TWO.)
A. Create an AWS Lambda authorizer for the API.
B. Create an Amazon Cognito authorizer for the API.
C. Configure the authorizer for the API resource.
D. Configure the API methods to use the authorizer.
E. Configure the authorizer for the API stage.
Q81: A developer is implementing a mobile app to provide personalized services to app users. The application code makes calls to Amazon S3 and Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS). Which options can the developer use to authenticate the app users? (Select TWO.)
A. Authenticate to the Amazon Cognito identity pool directly.
B. Authenticate to AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) directly.
C. Authenticate to the Amazon Cognito user pool directly.
D. Federate authentication by using Login with Amazon with the users managed with AWS Security Token Service (AWS STS).
E. Federate authentication by using Login with Amazon with the users managed with the Amazon Cognito user pool.
Question: A company is implementing several order processing workflows. Each workflow is implemented by using AWS Lambda functions for each task. Which combination of steps should a developer follow to implement these workflows? (Select TWO.)
A. Define a AWS Step Functions task for each Lambda function.
B. Define a AWS Step Functions task for each workflow.
C. Write code that polls the AWS Step Functions invocation to coordinate each workflow.
D. Define an AWS Step Functions state machine for each workflow.
E. Define an AWS Step Functions state machine for each Lambda function.
Answer: A. D.
Notes: Step Functions is based on state machines and tasks. A state machine is a workflow. Tasks perform work by coordinating with other AWS services, such as Lambda. A state machine is a workflow. It can be used to express a workflow as a number of states, their relationships, and their input and output. You can coordinate individual tasks with Step Functions by expressing your workflow as a finite state machine, written in the Amazon States Language.
ReferenceText: Getting Started with AWS Step Functions.
ReferenceUrl: https://aws.amazon.com/step-functions/getting-started/
Category: Development
Welcome to AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Preparation: Definition and Objectives, Top 100 Questions and Answers dump, White papers, Courses, Labs and Training Materials, Exam info and details, References, Jobs, Others AWS Certificates
What is the AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam?
This AWS Certified Developer-Associate Examination is intended for individuals who perform a Developer role. It validates an examinee’s ability to:
- Demonstrate an understanding of core AWS services, uses, and basic AWS architecture best practices
- Demonstrate proficiency in developing, deploying, and debugging cloud-based applications by using AWS
Recommended general IT knowledge
The target candidate should have the following:
– In-depth knowledge of at least one high-level programming language
– Understanding of application lifecycle management
– The ability to write code for serverless applications
– Understanding of the use of containers in the development process
Recommended AWS knowledge
The target candidate should be able to do the following:
- Use the AWS service APIs, CLI, and software development kits (SDKs) to write applications
- Identify key features of AWS services
- Understand the AWS shared responsibility model
- Use a continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline to deploy applications on AWS
- Use and interact with AWS services
- Apply basic understanding of cloud-native applications to write code
- Write code by using AWS security best practices (for example, use IAM roles instead of secret and access keys in the code)
- Author, maintain, and debug code modules on AWS
What is considered out of scope for the target candidate?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of related job tasks that the target candidate is not expected to be able to perform. These items are considered out of scope for the exam:
– Design architectures (for example, distributed system, microservices)
– Design and implement CI/CD pipelines
- Administer IAM users and groups
- Administer Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
- Design AWS networking infrastructure (for example, Amazon VPC, AWS Direct Connect)
- Understand compliance and licensing
Exam content
Response types
There are two types of questions on the exam:
– Multiple choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors)
– Multiple response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more response options
Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that a candidate with incomplete knowledge or skill might choose.
Distractors are generally plausible responses that match the content area.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing. The exam includes 50 questions that will affect your score.
Unscored content
The exam includes 15 unscored questions that do not affect your score. AWS collects information about candidate performance on these unscored questions to evaluate these questions for future use as scored questions. These unscored questions are not identified on the exam.
Exam results
The AWS Certified Developer – Associate (DVA-C01) exam is a pass or fail exam. The exam is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who follow certification industry best practices and guidelines.
Your results for the exam are reported as a scaled score of 100–1,000. The minimum passing score is 720.
Your score shows how you performed on the exam as a whole and whether you passed. Scaled scoring models help equate scores across multiple exam forms that might have slightly different difficulty levels.
Your score report could contain a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information is intended to provide general feedback about your exam performance. The exam uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to achieve a passing score in each section. You need to pass only the overall exam.
Each section of the exam has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than other sections have. The table contains general information that highlights your strengths and weaknesses. Use caution when interpreting section-level feedback.
Content outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives for the exam. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on the exam. However, additional context for each of the objectives is available to help guide your preparation for the exam. The following table lists the main content domains and their weightings. The table precedes the complete exam content outline, which includes the additional context.
The percentage in each domain represents only scored content.
Domain 1: Deployment 22%
Domain 2: Security 26%
Domain 3: Development with AWS Services 30%
Domain 4: Refactoring 10%
Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting 12%
Domain 1: Deployment
1.1 Deploy written code in AWS using existing CI/CD pipelines, processes, and patterns.
– Commit code to a repository and invoke build, test and/or deployment actions
– Use labels and branches for version and release management
– Use AWS CodePipeline to orchestrate workflows against different environments
– Apply AWS CodeCommit, AWS CodeBuild, AWS CodePipeline, AWS CodeStar, and AWS
CodeDeploy for CI/CD purposes
– Perform a roll back plan based on application deployment policy
1.2 Deploy applications using AWS Elastic Beanstalk.
– Utilize existing supported environments to define a new application stack
– Package the application
– Introduce a new application version into the Elastic Beanstalk environment
– Utilize a deployment policy to deploy an application version (i.e., all at once, rolling, rolling with batch, immutable)
– Validate application health using Elastic Beanstalk dashboard
– Use Amazon CloudWatch Logs to instrument application logging
1.3 Prepare the application deployment package to be deployed to AWS.
– Manage the dependencies of the code module (like environment variables, config files and static image files) within the package
– Outline the package/container directory structure and organize files appropriately
– Translate application resource requirements to AWS infrastructure parameters (e.g., memory, cores)
1.4 Deploy serverless applications.
– Given a use case, implement and launch an AWS Serverless Application Model (AWS SAM) template
– Manage environments in individual AWS services (e.g., Differentiate between Development, Test, and Production in Amazon API Gateway)
Domain 2: Security
2.1 Make authenticated calls to AWS services.
– Communicate required policy based on least privileges required by application.
– Assume an IAM role to access a service
– Use the software development kit (SDK) credential provider on-premises or in the cloud to access AWS services (local credentials vs. instance roles)
2.2 Implement encryption using AWS services.
– Encrypt data at rest (client side; server side; envelope encryption) using AWS services
– Encrypt data in transit
2.3 Implement application authentication and authorization.
– Add user sign-up and sign-in functionality for applications with Amazon Cognito identity or user pools
– Use Amazon Cognito-provided credentials to write code that access AWS services.
– Use Amazon Cognito sync to synchronize user profiles and data
– Use developer-authenticated identities to interact between end user devices, backend
authentication, and Amazon Cognito
Domain 3: Development with AWS Services
3.1 Write code for serverless applications.
– Compare and contrast server-based vs. serverless model (e.g., micro services, stateless nature of serverless applications, scaling serverless applications, and decoupling layers of serverless applications)
– Configure AWS Lambda functions by defining environment variables and parameters (e.g., memory, time out, runtime, handler)
– Create an API endpoint using Amazon API Gateway
– Create and test appropriate API actions like GET, POST using the API endpoint
– Apply Amazon DynamoDB concepts (e.g., tables, items, and attributes)
– Compute read/write capacity units for Amazon DynamoDB based on application requirements
– Associate an AWS Lambda function with an AWS event source (e.g., Amazon API Gateway, Amazon CloudWatch event, Amazon S3 events, Amazon Kinesis)
– Invoke an AWS Lambda function synchronously and asynchronously
3.2 Translate functional requirements into application design.
– Determine real-time vs. batch processing for a given use case
– Determine use of synchronous vs. asynchronous for a given use case
– Determine use of event vs. schedule/poll for a given use case
– Account for tradeoffs for consistency models in an application design
Domain 4: Refactoring
4.1 Optimize applications to best use AWS services and features.
Implement AWS caching services to optimize performance (e.g., Amazon ElastiCache, Amazon API Gateway cache)
Apply an Amazon S3 naming scheme for optimal read performance
4.2 Migrate existing application code to run on AWS.
– Isolate dependencies
– Run the application as one or more stateless processes
– Develop in order to enable horizontal scalability
– Externalize state
Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting
5.1 Write code that can be monitored.
– Create custom Amazon CloudWatch metrics
– Perform logging in a manner available to systems operators
– Instrument application source code to enable tracing in AWS X-Ray
5.2 Perform root cause analysis on faults found in testing or production.
– Interpret the outputs from the logging mechanism in AWS to identify errors in logs
– Check build and testing history in AWS services (e.g., AWS CodeBuild, AWS CodeDeploy, AWS CodePipeline) to identify issues
– Utilize AWS services (e.g., Amazon CloudWatch, VPC Flow Logs, and AWS X-Ray) to locate a specific faulty component
Which key tools, technologies, and concepts might be covered on the exam?
The following is a non-exhaustive list of the tools and technologies that could appear on the exam.
This list is subject to change and is provided to help you understand the general scope of services, features, or technologies on the exam.
The general tools and technologies in this list appear in no particular order.
AWS services are grouped according to their primary functions. While some of these technologies will likely be covered more than others on the exam, the order and placement of them in this list is no indication of relative weight or importance:
– Analytics
– Application Integration
– Containers
– Cost and Capacity Management
– Data Movement
– Developer Tools
– Instances (virtual machines)
– Management and Governance
– Networking and Content Delivery
– Security
– Serverless
AWS services and features
Analytics:
– Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES)
– Amazon Kinesis
Application Integration:
– Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events)
– Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
– Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
– AWS Step Functions
Compute:
– Amazon EC2
– AWS Elastic Beanstalk
– AWS Lambda
Containers:
– Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR)
– Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
– Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Services (Amazon EKS)
Database:
– Amazon DynamoDB
– Amazon ElastiCache
– Amazon RDS
Developer Tools:
– AWS CodeArtifact
– AWS CodeBuild
– AWS CodeCommit
– AWS CodeDeploy
– Amazon CodeGuru
– AWS CodePipeline
– AWS CodeStar
– AWS Fault Injection Simulator
– AWS X-Ray
Management and Governance:
– AWS CloudFormation
– Amazon CloudWatch
Networking and Content Delivery:
– Amazon API Gateway
– Amazon CloudFront
– Elastic Load Balancing
Security, Identity, and Compliance:
– Amazon Cognito
– AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
– AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
Storage:
– Amazon S3
Out-of-scope AWS services and features
The following is a non-exhaustive list of AWS services and features that are not covered on the exam.
These services and features do not represent every AWS offering that is excluded from the exam content.
Services or features that are entirely unrelated to the target job roles for the exam are excluded from this list because they are assumed to be irrelevant.
Out-of-scope AWS services and features include the following:
– AWS Application Discovery Service
– Amazon AppStream 2.0
– Amazon Chime
– Amazon Connect
– AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)
– AWS Device Farm
– Amazon Elastic Transcoder
– Amazon GameLift
– Amazon Lex
– Amazon Machine Learning (Amazon ML)
– AWS Managed Services
– Amazon Mobile Analytics
– Amazon Polly
– Amazon QuickSight
– Amazon Rekognition
– AWS Server Migration Service (AWS SMS)
– AWS Service Catalog
– AWS Shield Advanced
– AWS Shield Standard
– AWS Snow Family
– AWS Storage Gateway
– AWS WAF
– Amazon WorkMail
– Amazon WorkSpaces
To succeed with the real exam, do not memorize the answers below. It is very important that you understand why a question is right or wrong and the concepts behind it by carefully reading the reference documents in the answers.
AWS Certified Developer – Associate Practice Questions And Answers Dump
Q0: Your application reads commands from an SQS queue and sends them to web services hosted by your
partners. When a partner’s endpoint goes down, your application continually returns their commands to the queue. The repeated attempts to deliver these commands use up resources. Commands that can’t be delivered must not be lost.
How can you accommodate the partners’ broken web services without wasting your resources?
- A. Create a delay queue and set DelaySeconds to 30 seconds
- B. Requeue the message with a VisibilityTimeout of 30 seconds.
- C. Create a dead letter queue and set the Maximum Receives to 3.
- D. Requeue the message with a DelaySeconds of 30 seconds.
Top
Q1: A developer is writing an application that will store data in a DynamoDB table. The ratio of reads operations to write operations will be 1000 to 1, with the same data being accessed frequently.
What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?
- A. Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling
- B. Amazon DynamoDB cross-region replication
- C. Amazon DynamoDB Streams
- D. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator
Top
Q2: You are creating a DynamoDB table with the following attributes:
- PurchaseOrderNumber (partition key)
- CustomerID
- PurchaseDate
- TotalPurchaseValue
One of your applications must retrieve items from the table to calculate the total value of purchases for a
particular customer over a date range. What secondary index do you need to add to the table?
- A. Local secondary index with a partition key of CustomerID and sort key of PurchaseDate; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - B. Local secondary index with a partition key of PurchaseDate and sort key of CustomerID; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - C. Global secondary index with a partition key of CustomerID and sort key of PurchaseDate; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute - D. Global secondary index with a partition key of PurchaseDate and sort key of CustomerID; project the
TotalPurchaseValue attribute
Top
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Q3: When referencing the remaining time left for a Lambda function to run within the function’s code you would use:
- A. The event object
- B. The timeLeft object
- C. The remains object
- D. The context object
Top
Q4: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?
- A. invocation, zone
- B. event, zone
- C. invocation, context
- D. event, context
Q5: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only via SFTP
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
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Q6: A Lambda deployment package contains:
- A. Function code, libraries, and runtime binaries
- B. Only function code
- C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
- D. Only libraries not included within the runtime
Q7: You are attempting to SSH into an EC2 instance that is located in a public subnet. However, you are currently receiving a timeout error trying to connect. What could be a possible cause of this connection issue?
- A. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic, but does not have an outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
- B. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND has an outbound rule that explicitly denies SSH traffic.
- C. The security group associated with the EC2 instance has an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND the associated NACL has both an inbound and outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
- D. The security group associated with the EC2 instance does not have an inbound rule that allows SSH traffic AND the associated NACL does not have an outbound rule that allows SSH traffic.
Top
Q8: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?
- A. Create and assign EIP to each instance
- B. Create and attach a second IGW to the VPC.
- C. Create and utilize a NAT Gateway
- D. Connect to a VPN
Top
Q9: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?
- A. Security Groups
- B. Route Tables
- C. Elastic Load Balancer
- D. Auto Scaling
Top
Q10: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Q11: You’re writing a script with an AWS SDK that uses the AWS API Actions and want to create AMIs for non-EBS backed AMIs for you. Which API call should occurs in the final process of creating an AMI?
- A. RegisterImage
- B. CreateImage
- C. ami-register-image
- D. ami-create-image
Q12: When dealing with session state in EC2-based applications using Elastic load balancers which option is generally thought of as the best practice for managing user sessions?
- A. Having the ELB distribute traffic to all EC2 instances and then having the instance check a caching solution like ElastiCache running Redis or Memcached for session information
- B. Permenantly assigning users to specific instances and always routing their traffic to those instances
- C. Using Application-generated cookies to tie a user session to a particular instance for the cookie duration
- D. Using Elastic Load Balancer generated cookies to tie a user session to a particular instance
Q13: Which API call would best be used to describe an Amazon Machine Image?
- A. ami-describe-image
- B. ami-describe-images
- C. DescribeImage
- D. DescribeImages
Q14: What is one key difference between an Amazon EBS-backed and an instance-store backed instance?
- A. Autoscaling requires using Amazon EBS-backed instances
- B. Virtual Private Cloud requires EBS backed instances
- C. Amazon EBS-backed instances can be stopped and restarted without losing data
- D. Instance-store backed instances can be stopped and restarted without losing data
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Q15: After having created a new Linux instance on Amazon EC2, and downloaded the .pem file (called Toto.pem) you try and SSH into your IP address (54.1.132.33) using the following command.
ssh -i my_key.pem ec2-user@52.2.222.22
However you receive the following error.
@@@@@@@@ WARNING: UNPROTECTED PRIVATE KEY FILE! @ @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
What is the most probable reason for this and how can you fix it?
- A. You do not have root access on your terminal and need to use the sudo option for this to work.
- B. You do not have enough permissions to perform the operation.
- C. Your key file is encrypted. You need to use the -u option for unencrypted not the -i option.
- D. Your key file must not be publicly viewable for SSH to work. You need to modify your .pem file to limit permissions.
Q16: You have an EBS root device on /dev/sda1 on one of your EC2 instances. You are having trouble with this particular instance and you need to either Stop/Start, Reboot or Terminate the instance but you do NOT want to lose any data that you have stored on /dev/sda1. However, you are unsure if changing the instance state in any of the aforementioned ways will cause you to lose data stored on the EBS volume. Which of the below statements best describes the effect each change of instance state would have on the data you have stored on /dev/sda1?
- A. Whether you stop/start, reboot or terminate the instance it does not matter because data on an EBS volume is not ephemeral and the data will not be lost regardless of what method is used.
- B. If you stop/start the instance the data will not be lost. However if you either terminate or reboot the instance the data will be lost.
- C. Whether you stop/start, reboot or terminate the instance it does not matter because data on an EBS volume is ephemeral and it will be lost no matter what method is used.
- D. The data will be lost if you terminate the instance, however the data will remain on /dev/sda1 if you reboot or stop/start the instance because data on an EBS volume is not ephemeral.
Q17: EC2 instances are launched from Amazon Machine Images (AMIs). A given public AMI:
- A. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same AWS availability zone as the AMI is stored
- B. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same country as the AMI is stored
- C. Can only be used to launch EC2 instances in the same AWS region as the AMI is stored
- D. Can be used to launch EC2 instances in any AWS region
Q18: Which of the following statements is true about the Elastic File System (EFS)?
- A. EFS can scale out to meet capacity requirements and scale back down when no longer needed
- B. EFS can be used by multiple EC2 instances simultaneously
- C. EFS cannot be used by an instance using EBS
- D. EFS can be configured on an instance before launch just like an IAM role or EBS volumes
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Q19: IAM Policies, at a minimum, contain what elements?
- A. ID
- B. Effects
- C. Resources
- D. Sid
- E. Principle
- F. Actions
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Q20: What are the main benefits of IAM groups?
- A. The ability to create custom permission policies.
- B. Assigning IAM permission policies to more than one user at a time.
- C. Easier user/policy management.
- D. Allowing EC2 instances to gain access to S3.
Q21: What are benefits of using AWS STS?
- A. Grant access to AWS resources without having to create an IAM identity for them
- B. Since credentials are temporary, you don’t have to rotate or revoke them
- C. Temporary security credentials can be extended indefinitely
- D. Temporary security credentials can be restricted to a specific region
Q22: What should the Developer enable on the DynamoDB table to optimize performance and minimize costs?
- A. Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling
- B. Amazon DynamoDB cross-region replication
- C. Amazon DynamoDB Streams
- D. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator
Top
Q23: A Developer has been asked to create an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment for a production web application which needs to handle thousands of requests. Currently the dev environment is running on a t1 micro instance. How can the Developer change the EC2 instance type to m4.large?
- A. Use CloudFormation to migrate the Amazon EC2 instance type of the environment from t1 micro to m4.large.
- B. Create a saved configuration file in Amazon S3 with the instance type as m4.large and use the same during environment creation.
- C. Change the instance type to m4.large in the configuration details page of the Create New Environment page.
- D. Change the instance type value for the environment to m4.large by using update autoscaling group CLI command.
Q24: What statements are true about Availability Zones (AZs) and Regions?
- A. There is only one AZ in each AWS Region
- B. AZs are geographically separated inside a region to help protect against natural disasters affecting more than one at a time.
- C. AZs can be moved between AWS Regions based on your needs
- D. There are (almost always) two or more AZs in each AWS Region
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Q25: An AWS Region contains:
- A. Edge Locations
- B. Data Centers
- C. AWS Services
- D. Availability Zones
Top
Q26: Which read request in DynamoDB returns a response with the most up-to-date data, reflecting the updates from all prior write operations that were successful?
- A. Eventual Consistent Reads
- B. Conditional reads for Consistency
- C. Strongly Consistent Reads
- D. Not possible
Top
Q27: You’ ve been asked to move an existing development environment on the AWS Cloud. This environment consists mainly of Docker based containers. You need to ensure that minimum effort is taken during the migration process. Which of the following step would you consider for this requirement?
- A. Create an Opswork stack and deploy the Docker containers
- B. Create an application and Environment for the Docker containers in the Elastic Beanstalk service
- C. Create an EC2 Instance. Install Docker and deploy the necessary containers.
- D. Create an EC2 Instance. Install Docker and deploy the necessary containers. Add an Autoscaling Group for scalability of the containers.
Top
Q28: You’ve written an application that uploads objects onto an S3 bucket. The size of the object varies between 200 – 500 MB. You’ve seen that the application sometimes takes a longer than expected time to upload the object. You want to improve the performance of the application. Which of the following would you consider?
- A. Create multiple threads and upload the objects in the multiple threads
- B. Write the items in batches for better performance
- C. Use the Multipart upload API
- D. Enable versioning on the Bucket
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Top
Q29: A security system monitors 600 cameras, saving image metadata every 1 minute to an Amazon DynamoDb table. Each sample involves 1kb of data, and the data writes are evenly distributed over time. How much write throughput is required for the target table?
- A. 6000
- B. 10
- C. 3600
- D. 600
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Q30: What two arguments does a Python Lambda handler function require?
- A. invocation, zone
- B. event, zone
- C. invocation, context
- D. event, context
Top
Q31: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only via SFTP
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Top
Q32: A Lambda deployment package contains:
- A. Function code, libraries, and runtime binaries
- B. Only function code
- C. Function code and libraries not included within the runtime
- D. Only libraries not included within the runtime
Top
Q33: You have instances inside private subnets and a properly configured bastion host instance in a public subnet. None of the instances in the private subnets have a public or Elastic IP address. How can you connect an instance in the private subnet to the open internet to download system updates?
- A. Create and assign EIP to each instance
- B. Create and attach a second IGW to the VPC.
- C. Create and utilize a NAT Gateway
- D. Connect to a VPN
Top
Q34: What feature of VPC networking should you utilize if you want to create “elasticity” in your application’s architecture?
- A. Security Groups
- B. Route Tables
- C. Elastic Load Balancer
- D. Auto Scaling
Top
Q30: Lambda allows you to upload code and dependencies for function packages:
- A. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- B. Only from a directly uploaded zip file
- C. Only from a zip file in AWS S3
- D. From a zip file in AWS S3 or uploaded directly from elsewhere
Answer:
Top
Q31: An organization is using an Amazon ElastiCache cluster in front of their Amazon RDS instance. The organization would like the Developer to implement logic into the code so that the cluster only retrieves data from RDS when there is a cache miss. What strategy can the Developer implement to achieve this?
- A. Lazy loading
- B. Write-through
- C. Error retries
- D. Exponential backoff
Answer:
Top
Q32: A developer is writing an application that will run on Ec2 instances and read messages from SQS queue. The nessages will arrive every 15-60 seconds. How should the Developer efficiently query the queue for new messages?
- A. Use long polling
- B. Set a custom visibility timeout
- C. Use short polling
- D. Implement exponential backoff
Top
Q33: You are using AWS SAM to define a Lambda function and configure CodeDeploy to manage deployment patterns. With new Lambda function working as per expectation which of the following will shift traffic from original Lambda function to new Lambda function in the shortest time frame?
- A. Canary10Percent5Minutes
- B. Linear10PercentEvery10Minutes
- C. Canary10Percent15Minutes
- D. Linear10PercentEvery1Minute
Top
Q34: You are using AWS SAM templates to deploy a serverless application. Which of the following resource will embed application from Amazon S3 buckets?
- A. AWS::Serverless::Api
- B. AWS::Serverless::Application
- C. AWS::Serverless::Layerversion
- D. AWS::Serverless::Function
Top
Q35: You are using AWS Envelope Encryption for encrypting all sensitive data. Which of the followings is True with regards to Envelope Encryption?
- A. Data is encrypted be encrypting Data key which is further encrypted using encrypted Master Key.
- B. Data is encrypted by plaintext Data key which is further encrypted using encrypted Master Key.
- C. Data is encrypted by encrypted Data key which is further encrypted using plaintext Master Key.
- D. Data is encrypted by plaintext Data key which is further encrypted using plaintext Master Key.
Top
Q36: You are developing an application that will be comprised of the following architecture –
- A set of Ec2 instances to process the videos.
- These (Ec2 instances) will be spun up by an autoscaling group.
- SQS Queues to maintain the processing messages.
- There will be 2 pricing tiers.
How will you ensure that the premium customers videos are given more preference?
- A. Create 2 Autoscaling Groups, one for normal and one for premium customers
- B. Create 2 set of Ec2 Instances, one for normal and one for premium customers
- C. Create 2 SQS queus, one for normal and one for premium customers
- D. Create 2 Elastic Load Balancers, one for normal and one for premium customers.
Top
Q37: You are developing an application that will interact with a DynamoDB table. The table is going to take in a lot of read and write operations. Which of the following would be the ideal partition key for the DynamoDB table to ensure ideal performance?
- A. CustomerID
- B. CustomerName
- C. Location
- D. Age
Top
Q38: A developer is making use of AWS services to develop an application. He has been asked to develop the application in a manner to compensate any network delays. Which of the following two mechanisms should he implement in the application?
- A. Multiple SQS queues
- B. Exponential backoff algorithm
- C. Retries in your application code
- D. Consider using the Java sdk.
Top
Q39: An application is being developed that is going to write data to a DynamoDB table. You have to setup the read and write throughput for the table. Data is going to be read at the rate of 300 items every 30 seconds. Each item is of size 6KB. The reads can be eventual consistent reads. What should be the read capacity that needs to be set on the table?
- A. 10
- B. 20
- C. 6
- D. 30
Top
Q40: You are in charge of deploying an application that will be hosted on an EC2 Instance and sit behind an Elastic Load balancer. You have been requested to monitor the incoming connections to the Elastic Load Balancer. Which of the below options can suffice this requirement?
- A. Use AWS CloudTrail with your load balancer
- B. Enable access logs on the load balancer
- C. Use a CloudWatch Logs Agent
- D. Create a custom metric CloudWatch lter on your load balancer
Top
Q41: A static web site has been hosted on a bucket and is now being accessed by users. One of the web pages javascript section has been changed to access data which is hosted in another S3 bucket. Now that same web page is no longer loading in the browser. Which of the following can help alleviate the error?
- A. Enable versioning for the underlying S3 bucket.
- B. Enable Replication so that the objects get replicated to the other bucket
- C. Enable CORS for the bucket
- D. Change the Bucket policy for the bucket to allow access from the other bucket
Top
Q42: Your mobile application includes a photo-sharing service that is expecting tens of thousands of users at launch. You will leverage Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3) for storage of the user Images, and you must decide how to authenticate and authorize your users for access to these images. You also need to manage the storage of these images. Which two of the following approaches should you use? Choose two answers from the options below
- A. Create an Amazon S3 bucket per user, and use your application to generate the S3 URL for the appropriate content.
- B. Use AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) user accounts as your application-level user database, and offload the burden of authentication from your application code.
- C. Authenticate your users at the application level, and use AWS Security Token Service (STS)to grant token-based authorization to S3 objects.
- D. Authenticate your users at the application level, and send an SMS token message to the user. Create an Amazon S3 bucket with the same name as the SMS message token, and move the user’s objects to that bucket.
Top
Q43: Your current log analysis application takes more than four hours to generate a report of the top 10 users of your web application. You have been asked to implement a system that can report this information in real time, ensure that the report is always up to date, and handle increases in the number of requests to your web application. Choose the option that is cost-effective and can fulfill the requirements.
- A. Publish your data to CloudWatch Logs, and congure your application to Autoscale to handle the load on demand.
- B. Publish your log data to an Amazon S3 bucket. Use AWS CloudFormation to create an Auto Scaling group to scale your post-processing application which is congured to pull down your log les stored an Amazon S3
- C. Post your log data to an Amazon Kinesis data stream, and subscribe your log-processing application so that is congured to process your logging data.
- D. Create a multi-AZ Amazon RDS MySQL cluster, post the logging data to MySQL, and run a map reduce job to retrieve the required information on user counts.
Answer:
Top
Q44: You’ve been instructed to develop a mobile application that will make use of AWS services. You need to decide on a data store to store the user sessions. Which of the following would be an ideal data store for session management?
- A. AWS Simple Storage Service
- B. AWS DynamoDB
- C. AWS RDS
- D. AWS Redshift
Answer:
Top
Q45: Your application currently interacts with a DynamoDB table. Records are inserted into the table via the application. There is now a requirement to ensure that whenever items are updated in the DynamoDB primary table , another record is inserted into a secondary table. Which of the below feature should be used when developing such a solution?
- A. AWS DynamoDB Encryption
- B. AWS DynamoDB Streams
- C. AWS DynamoDB Accelerator
- D. AWSTable Accelerator
Top
Q46: An application has been making use of AWS DynamoDB for its back-end data store. The size of the table has now grown to 20 GB , and the scans on the table are causing throttling errors. Which of the following should now be implemented to avoid such errors?
- A. Large Page size
- B. Reduced page size
- C. Parallel Scans
- D. Sequential scans
Top
Q47: Which of the following is correct way of passing a stage variable to an HTTP URL ? (Select TWO.)
- A. http://example.com/${}/prod
- B. http://example.com/${stageVariables.}/prod
- C. http://${stageVariables.}.example.com/dev/operation
- D. http://${stageVariables}.example.com/dev/operation
- E. http://${}.example.com/dev/operation
- F. http://example.com/${stageVariables}/prod
Top
Q48: Your company is planning on creating new development environments in AWS. They want to make use of their existing Chef recipes which they use for their on-premise configuration for servers in AWS. Which of the following service would be ideal to use in this regard?
- A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
- B. AWS OpsWork
- C. AWS Cloudformation
- D. AWS SQS
Top
Q49: Your company has developed a web application and is hosting it in an Amazon S3 bucket configured for static website hosting. The users can log in to this app using their Google/Facebook login accounts. The application is using the AWS SDK for JavaScript in the browser to access data stored in an Amazon DynamoDB table. How can you ensure that API keys for access to your data in DynamoDB are kept secure?
- A. Create an Amazon S3 role in IAM with access to the specific DynamoDB tables, and assign it to the bucket hosting your website
- B. Configure S3 bucket tags with your AWS access keys for your bucket hosing your website so that the application can query them for access.
- C. Configure a web identity federation role within IAM to enable access to the correct DynamoDB resources and retrieve temporary credentials
- D. Store AWS keys in global variables within your application and configure the application to use these credentials when making requests.
Top
Q50: Your application currently makes use of AWS Cognito for managing user identities. You want to analyze the information that is stored in AWS Cognito for your application. Which of the following features of AWS Cognito should you use for this purpose?
- A. Cognito Data
- B. Cognito Events
- C. Cognito Streams
- D. Cognito Callbacks
Top
Q51: You’ve developed a set of scripts using AWS Lambda. These scripts need to access EC2 Instances in a VPC. Which of the following needs to be done to ensure that the AWS Lambda function can access the resources in the VPC. Choose 2 answers from the options given below
- A. Ensure that the subnet ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- B. Ensure that the NACL ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- C. Ensure that the Security Group ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
- D. Ensure that the VPC Flow Log ID’s are mentioned when conguring the Lambda function
Top
Q52: You’ve currently been tasked to migrate an existing on-premise environment into Elastic Beanstalk. The application does not make use of Docker containers. You also can’t see any relevant environments in the beanstalk service that would be suitable to host your application. What should you consider doing in this case?
- A. Migrate your application to using Docker containers and then migrate the app to the Elastic Beanstalk environment.
- B. Consider using Cloudformation to deploy your environment to Elastic Beanstalk
- C. Consider using Packer to create a custom platform
- D. Consider deploying your application using the Elastic Container Service
Top
Q53: Company B is writing 10 items to the Dynamo DB table every second. Each item is 15.5Kb in size. What would be the required provisioned write throughput for best performance? Choose the correct answer from the options below.
- A. 10
- B. 160
- C. 155
- D. 16
Top
Q54: Which AWS Service can be used to automatically install your application code onto EC2, on premises systems and Lambda?
- A. CodeCommit
- B. X-Ray
- C. CodeBuild
- D. CodeDeploy
Top
Q55: Which AWS service can be used to compile source code, run tests and package code?
- A. CodePipeline
- B. CodeCommit
- C. CodeBuild
- D. CodeDeploy
Top
Q56: How can your prevent CloudFormation from deleting your entire stack on failure? (Choose 2)
- A. Set the Rollback on failure radio button to No in the CloudFormation console
- B. Set Termination Protection to Enabled in the CloudFormation console
- C. Use the –disable-rollback flag with the AWS CLI
- D. Use the –enable-termination-protection protection flag with the AWS CLI
Q57: Which of the following practices allows multiple developers working on the same application to merge code changes frequently, without impacting each other and enables the identification of bugs early on in the release process?
- A. Continuous Integration
- B. Continuous Deployment
- C. Continuous Delivery
- D. Continuous Development
Q58: When deploying application code to EC2, the AppSpec file can be written in which language?
- A. JSON
- B. JSON or YAML
- C. XML
- D. YAML
Q59: Part of your CloudFormation deployment fails due to a mis-configuration, by defaukt what will happen?
- A. CloudFormation will rollback only the failed components
- B. CloudFormation will rollback the entire stack
- C. Failed component will remain available for debugging purposes
- D. CloudFormation will ask you if you want to continue with the deployment
Top
Q60: You want to receive an email whenever a user pushes code to CodeCommit repository, how can you configure this?
- A. Create a new SNS topic and configure it to poll for CodeCommit eveents. Ask all users to subscribe to the topic to receive notifications
- B. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SES which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
- C. Configure Notifications in the console, this will create a CloudWatch events rule to send a notification to a SNS topic which will trigger an email to be sent to the user.
- D. Configure a CloudWatch Events rule to send a message to SQS which will trigger an email to be sent whenever a user pushes code to the repository.
Top
Q61: Which AWS service can be used to centrally store and version control your application source code, binaries and libraries
- A. CodeCommit
- B. CodeBuild
- C. CodePipeline
- D. ElasticFileSystem
Top
Q62: You are using CloudFormation to create a new S3 bucket, which of the following sections would you use to define the properties of your bucket?
- A. Conditions
- B. Parameters
- C. Outputs
- D. Resources
Top
Q63: You are deploying a number of EC2 and RDS instances using CloudFormation. Which section of the CloudFormation template would you use to define these?
- A. Transforms
- B. Outputs
- C. Resources
- D. Instances
Top
Q64: Which AWS service can be used to fully automate your entire release process?
- A. CodeDeploy
- B. CodePipeline
- C. CodeCommit
- D. CodeBuild
Top
Q65: You want to use the output of your CloudFormation stack as input to another CloudFormation stack. Which sections of the CloudFormation template would you use to help you configure this?
- A. Outputs
- B. Transforms
- C. Resources
- D. Exports
Top
Q66: You have some code located in an S3 bucket that you want to reference in your CloudFormation template. Which section of the template can you use to define this?
- A. Inputs
- B. Resources
- C. Transforms
- D. Files
Top
Q67: You are deploying an application to a number of Ec2 instances using CodeDeploy. What is the name of the file
used to specify source files and lifecycle hooks?
- A. buildspec.yml
- B. appspec.json
- C. appspec.yml
- D. buildspec.json
Q68: Which of the following approaches allows you to re-use pieces of CloudFormation code in multiple templates, for common use cases like provisioning a load balancer or web server?
- A. Share the code using an EBS volume
- B. Copy and paste the code into the template each time you need to use it
- C. Use a cloudformation nested stack
- D. Store the code you want to re-use in an AMI and reference the AMI from within your CloudFormation template.
Q69: In the CodeDeploy AppSpec file, what are hooks used for?
- A. To reference AWS resources that will be used during the deployment
- B. Hooks are reserved for future use
- C. To specify files you want to copy during the deployment.
- D. To specify, scripts or function that you want to run at set points in the deployment lifecycle
Q70: Which command can you use to encrypt a plain text file using CMK?
- A. aws kms-encrypt
- B. aws iam encrypt
- C. aws kms encrypt
- D. aws encrypt
Q72: Which of the following is an encrypted key used by KMS to encrypt your data
- A. Custmoer Mamaged Key
- B. Encryption Key
- C. Envelope Key
- D. Customer Master Key
Q73: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose 2)
- A. The Customer Master Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Envelope Key or Data Key
- B. The Envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
- C. The envelope Key or Data Key is used to encrypt and decrypt the Customer Master Key.
- D. The Customer MasterKey is used to encrypt and decrypt plain text files.
Q74: Which of the following statements is correct in relation to kMS/ (Choose 2)
- A. KMS Encryption keys are regional
- B. You cannot export your customer master key
- C. You can export your customer master key.
- D. KMS encryption Keys are global
Q75: A developer is preparing a deployment package for a Java implementation of an AWS Lambda function. What should the developer include in the deployment package? (Select TWO.)
A. Compiled application code
B. Java runtime environment
C. References to the event sources
D. Lambda execution role
E. Application dependencies
Q76: A developer uses AWS CodeDeploy to deploy a Python application to a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances that run behind an Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. What should the developer include in the CodeDeploy deployment package?
A. A launch template for the Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group
B. A CodeDeploy AppSpec file
C. An EC2 role that grants the application access to AWS services
D. An IAM policy that grants the application access to AWS services
Q76: A company is working on a project to enhance its serverless application development process. The company hosts applications on AWS Lambda. The development team regularly updates the Lambda code and wants to use stable code in production. Which combination of steps should the development team take to configure Lambda functions to meet both development and production requirements? (Select TWO.)
A. Create a new Lambda version every time a new code release needs testing.
B. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to a production-ready unqualified Amazon Resource Name (ARN) version. Point the Development alias to the $LATEST version.
C. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to the production-ready qualified Amazon Resource Name (ARN) version. Point the Development alias to the variable LAMBDA_TASK_ROOT.
D. Create a new Lambda layer every time a new code release needs testing.
E. Create two Lambda function aliases. Name one as Production and the other as Development. Point the Production alias to a production-ready Lambda layer Amazon Resource Name (ARN). Point the Development alias to the $LATEST layer ARN.
Q77: Each time a developer publishes a new version of an AWS Lambda function, all the dependent event source mappings need to be updated with the reference to the new version’s Amazon Resource Name (ARN). These updates are time consuming and error-prone. Which combination of actions should the developer take to avoid performing these updates when publishing a new Lambda version? (Select TWO.)
A. Update event source mappings with the ARN of the Lambda layer.
B. Point a Lambda alias to a new version of the Lambda function.
C. Create a Lambda alias for each published version of the Lambda function.
D. Point a Lambda alias to a new Lambda function alias.
E. Update the event source mappings with the Lambda alias ARN.
Q78: A company wants to store sensitive user data in Amazon S3 and encrypt this data at rest. The company must manage the encryption keys and use Amazon S3 to perform the encryption. How can a developer meet these requirements?
A. Enable default encryption for the S3 bucket by using the option for server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C).
B. Enable client-side encryption with an encryption key. Upload the encrypted object to the S3 bucket.
C. Enable server-side encryption with Amazon S3 managed encryption keys (SSE-S3). Upload an object to the S3 bucket.
D. Enable server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C). Upload an object to the S3 bucket.
Q79: A company is developing a Python application that submits data to an Amazon DynamoDB table. The company requires client-side encryption of specific data items and end-to-end protection for the encrypted data in transit and at rest. Which combination of steps will meet the requirement for the encryption of specific data items? (Select TWO.)
A. Generate symmetric encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS).
B. Generate asymmetric encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS).
C. Use generated keys with the DynamoDB Encryption Client.
D. Use generated keys to configure DynamoDB table encryption with AWS managed customer master keys (CMKs).
E. Use generated keys to configure DynamoDB table encryption with AWS owned customer master keys (CMKs).
Q80: A company is developing a REST API with Amazon API Gateway. Access to the API should be limited to users in the existing Amazon Cognito user pool. Which combination of steps should a developer perform to secure the API? (Select TWO.)
A. Create an AWS Lambda authorizer for the API.
B. Create an Amazon Cognito authorizer for the API.
C. Configure the authorizer for the API resource.
D. Configure the API methods to use the authorizer.
E. Configure the authorizer for the API stage.
Q81: A developer is implementing a mobile app to provide personalized services to app users. The application code makes calls to Amazon S3 and Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS). Which options can the developer use to authenticate the app users? (Select TWO.)
A. Authenticate to the Amazon Cognito identity pool directly.
B. Authenticate to AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) directly.
C. Authenticate to the Amazon Cognito user pool directly.
D. Federate authentication by using Login with Amazon with the users managed with AWS Security Token Service (AWS STS).
E. Federate authentication by using Login with Amazon with the users managed with the Amazon Cognito user pool.
Q82: A company is implementing several order processing workflows. Each workflow is implemented by using AWS Lambda functions for each task. Which combination of steps should a developer follow to implement these workflows? (Select TWO.)
A. Define a AWS Step Functions task for each Lambda function.
B. Define a AWS Step Functions task for each workflow.
C. Write code that polls the AWS Step Functions invocation to coordinate each workflow.
D. Define an AWS Step Functions state machine for each workflow.
E. Define an AWS Step Functions state machine for each Lambda function.
Q83: A company is migrating a web service to the AWS Cloud. The web service accepts requests by using HTTP (port 80). The company wants to use an AWS Lambda function to process HTTP requests. Which application design will satisfy these requirements?
A. Create an Amazon API Gateway API. Configure proxy integration with the Lambda function.
B. Create an Amazon API Gateway API. Configure non-proxy integration with the Lambda function.
C. Configure the Lambda function to listen to inbound network connections on port 80.
D. Configure the Lambda function as a target in the Application Load Balancer target group.
Q84: A company is developing an image processing application. When an image is uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket, a number of independent and separate services must be invoked to process the image. The services do not have to be available immediately, but they must process every image. Which application design satisfies these requirements?
A. Configure an Amazon S3 event notification that publishes to an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Each service pulls the message from the same queue.
B. Configure an Amazon S3 event notification that publishes to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Each service subscribes to the same topic.
C. Configure an Amazon S3 event notification that publishes to an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Subscribe a separate Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic for each service to an Amazon SQS queue.
D. Configure an Amazon S3 event notification that publishes to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Subscribe a separate Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue for each service to the Amazon SNS topic.
Q85: A developer wants to implement Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling for a Multi-AZ web application. However, the developer is concerned that user sessions will be lost during scale-in events. How can the developer store the session state and share it across the EC2 instances?
A. Write the sessions to an Amazon Kinesis data stream. Configure the application to poll the stream.
B. Publish the sessions to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Subscribe each instance in the group to the topic.
C. Store the sessions in an Amazon ElastiCache for Memcached cluster. Configure the application to use the Memcached API.
D. Write the sessions to an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume. Mount the volume to each instance in the group.
Q86: A developer is integrating a legacy web application that runs on a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances with an Amazon DynamoDB table. There is no AWS SDK for the programming language that was used to implement the web application. Which combination of steps should the developer perform to make an API call to Amazon DynamoDB from the instances? (Select TWO.)
A. Make an HTTPS POST request to the DynamoDB API endpoint for the AWS Region. In the request body, include an XML document that contains the request attributes.
B. Make an HTTPS POST request to the DynamoDB API endpoint for the AWS Region. In the request body, include a JSON document that contains the request attributes.
C. Sign the requests by using AWS access keys and Signature Version 4.
D. Use an EC2 SSH key to calculate Signature Version 4 of the request.
E. Provide the signature value through the HTTP X-API-Key header.
Q87: A developer has written several custom applications that read and write to the same Amazon DynamoDB table. Each time the data in the DynamoDB table is modified, this change should be sent to an external API. Which combination of steps should the developer perform to accomplish this task? (Select TWO.)
A. Configure an AWS Lambda function to poll the stream and call the external API.
B. Configure an event in Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) that publishes the change to an Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka (Amazon MSK) data stream.
C. Create a trigger in the DynamoDB table to publish the change to an Amazon Kinesis data stream.
D. Deliver the stream to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic and subscribe the API to the topic.
E. Enable DynamoDB Streams on the table.
Q88: A company is migrating the create, read, update, and delete (CRUD) functionality of an existing Java web application to AWS Lambda. Which minimal code refactoring is necessary for the CRUD operations to run in the Lambda function?
A. Implement a Lambda handler function.
B. Import an AWS X-Ray package.
C. Rewrite the application code in Python.
D. Add a reference to the Lambda execution role.
Q89: A company plans to use AWS log monitoring services to monitor an application that runs on premises. Currently, the application runs on a recent version of Ubuntu Server and outputs the logs to a local file. Which combination of steps should a developer perform to accomplish this goal? (Select TWO.)
A. Update the application code to include calls to the agent API for log collection.
B. Install the Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) container agent on the server.
C. Install the unified Amazon CloudWatch agent on the server.
D. Configure the long-term AWS credentials on the server to enable log collection by the agent.
E. Attach an IAM role to the server to enable log collection by the agent.
Q90: A developer wants to monitor invocations of an AWS Lambda function by using Amazon CloudWatch Logs. The developer added a number of print statements to the function code that write the logging information to the stdout stream. After running the function, the developer does not see any log data being generated. Why does the log data NOT appear in the CloudWatch logs?
A. The log data is not written to the stderr stream.
B. Lambda function logging is not automatically enabled.
C. The execution role for the Lambda function did not grant permissions to write log data to CloudWatch Logs.
D. The Lambda function outputs the logs to an Amazon S3 bucket.
Q91: Which of the following are best practices you should implement into ongoing deployments of your application? (Select THREE.)
A. Use stage variables to manage secrets across environments
B. Create account-specific AWS SAM templates for each environment
C. Use an AutoPublish alias
D. Use traffic shifting with pre- and post-deployment hooks
E. Test throughout the pipeline
Q92: You are handing off maintenance of your new serverless application to an incoming team lead. Which recommendations would you make? (Select THREE.)
A. Keep up to date with the quotas and payload sizes for each AWS service you are using
B. Analyze production access patterns to identify potential improvements
C. Design your services to extend their life as long as possible
D. Minimize changes to your production application
E. Compare the value of using the latest first-class integrations versus using Lambda between AWS services
Q93: You are handing off maintenance of your new serverless application to an incoming team lead. Which recommendations would you make? (Select THREE.)
A. Keep up to date with the quotas and payload sizes for each AWS service you are using
B. Analyze production access patterns to identify potential improvements
C. Design your services to extend their life as long as possible
D. Minimize changes to your production application
E. Compare the value of using the latest first-class integrations versus using Lambda between AWS services
Q94: Your application needs to connect to an Amazon RDS instance on the backend. What is the best recommendation to the developer whose function must read from and write to the Amazon RDS instance?
A. Initialize the number of connections you want outside of the handler
B. Use the database TTL setting to clean up connections
C. Use reserved concurrency to limit the number of concurrent functions that would try to write to the database
D. Use the database proxy feature to provide connection pooling for the functions
Question 95: A developer reports that a third-party library they need cannot be shared in the Lambda invocation environment. Which suggestion would you make?
A. Decrease the deployment package size
B. Set a provisioned concurrency of one so that the library doesn’t need to be shared across environments
C. Use reserved concurrency for the function that needs to use the library
D. Load the third-party library onto an Amazon EFS volume
AWS Certified Developer Associate exam: Whitepapers
AWS has provided whitepapers to help you understand the technical concepts. Below are the recommended whitepapers for the AWS Certified Developer – Associate Exam.
- Overview of Amazon Web Services
- Architecting for the Cloud: AWS Best Practices
- AWS Security Best Practices whitepaper, August 2016
- AWS Well-Architected Framework whitepaper, November 2017 Version 1.3 DVA-C01 Page |2
- Architecting for the Cloud AWS Best Practices whitepaper, February, 2016
- Practicing Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery on AWS Accelerating Software Delivery with DevOps whitepaper, June 2017
- Microservices on AWS whitepaper, September 2017
- Serverless Architectures with AWS Lambda whitepaper, November 2017
- Optimizing Enterprise Economics with Serverless Architectures whitepaper, October 2017
- Running Containerized Microservices on AWS whitepaper, November 2017
- Blue/Green Deployments on AWS whitepaper, August 2016
Online Training and Labs for AWS Certified Developer Associates Exam
The Cloud is the future: Get Certified now.
The AWS Certified Solution Architect Average Salary is: US $149,446/year. Get Certified with the App below:
AWS Developer Associates Jobs
AWS Certified Developer-Associate Exam info and details, How To:
The Cloud is the future: Get Certified now.
The AWS Certified Solution Architect Average Salary is: US $149,446/year. Get Certified with the App below:
The AWS Certified Developer Associate exam is a multiple choice, multiple answer exam. Here is the Exam Overview:
- Certification Name: AWS Certified Developer Associate.
- Prerequisites for the Exam: None.
- Exam Pattern: Multiple Choice Questions
- The AWS Certified Developer-Associate Examination (DVA-C01) is a pass or fail exam. The examination is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals guided by certification industry best practices and guidelines.
- Your results for the examination are reported as a score from 100 – 1000, with a minimum passing score of 720.
- Exam fees: US $150
- Exam Guide on AWS Website
- Available languages for tests: English, Japanese, Korean, Simplified Chinese
- Read AWS whitepapers
- Register for certification account here.
- Prepare for Certification Here
Exam Content Outline
Domain % of Examination Domain 1: Deployment (22%)
1.1 Deploy written code in AWS using existing CI/CD pipelines, processes, and patterns.
1.2 Deploy applications using Elastic Beanstalk.
1.3 Prepare the application deployment package to be deployed to AWS.
1.4 Deploy serverless applications22% Domain 2: Security (26%)
2.1 Make authenticated calls to AWS services.
2.2 Implement encryption using AWS services.
2.3 Implement application authentication and authorization.26% Domain 3: Development with AWS Services (30%)
3.1 Write code for serverless applications.
3.2 Translate functional requirements into application design.
3.3 Implement application design into application code.
3.4 Write code that interacts with AWS services by using APIs, SDKs, and AWS CLI.30% Domain 4: Refactoring
4.1 Optimize application to best use AWS services and features.
4.2 Migrate existing application code to run on AWS.10% Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting (10%)
5.1 Write code that can be monitored.
5.2 Perform root cause analysis on faults found in testing or production.10% TOTAL 100%
AWS Certified Developer Associate exam: Additional Information for reference
Below are some useful reference links that would help you to learn about AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam.
- Developing on AWS: An instructor-led live or virtual 3-day course
- https://aws.amazon.com/certification/faqs/
- AWS Digital Training: Application Services, Developer Tools, and other services covered on the exam
- Prepare for AWS Certification
- AWS EC2 Instance info
- AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Guide
The Cloud is the future: Get Certified now.
The AWS Certified Solution Architect Average Salary is: US $149,446/year. Get Certified with the App below:
Other Relevant and Recommended AWS Certifications
The Cloud is the future: Get Certified now.
The AWS Certified Solution Architect Average Salary is: US $149,446/year. Get Certified with the App below:
- AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner
- AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate
- AAWS Certified Developer – Associate
- AWS Certified SysOps Administrator – Associate
- AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional
- AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional
- AWS Certified Big Data Specialty
- AWS Certified Advanced Networking.
- AWS Certified Security – Specialty
Other AWS Facts and Summaries and Questions/Answers Dump
- AWS S3 facts and summaries and Q&A Dump
- AWS DynamoDB facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS EC2 facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS Serverless facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS Developer and Deployment Theory facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS IAM facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS Lambda facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS SQS facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS RDS facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS ECS facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS CloudWatch facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS SES facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS EBS facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS ELB facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS Autoscaling facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS VPC facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS KMS facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS Elastic Beanstalk facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS CodeBuild facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS CodeDeploy facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS CodePipeline facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
AWS Certified Developer Associate exam: Whitepapers
AWS has provided whitepapers to help you understand the technical concepts. Below are the recommended whitepapers for the AWS Certified Developer – Associate Exam.
- Overview of Amazon Web Services
- Architecting for the Cloud: AWS Best Practices
- AWS Security Best Practices whitepaper, August 2016
- AWS Well-Architected Framework whitepaper, November 2017 Version 1.3 DVA-C01 Page |2
- Architecting for the Cloud AWS Best Practices whitepaper, February, 2016
- Practicing Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery on AWS Accelerating Software Delivery with DevOps whitepaper, June 2017
- Microservices on AWS whitepaper, September 2017
- Serverless Architectures with AWS Lambda whitepaper, November 2017
- Optimizing Enterprise Economics with Serverless Architectures whitepaper, October 2017
- Running Containerized Microservices on AWS whitepaper, November 2017
- Blue/Green Deployments on AWS whitepaper, August 2016
Online Training and Labs for AWS Certified Developer Associates Exam
The Cloud is the future: Get Certified now.
The AWS Certified Solution Architect Average Salary is: US $149,446/year. Get Certified with the App below:
AWS Developer Associates Jobs
AWS Certified Developer-Associate Exam info and details, How To:
The Cloud is the future: Get Certified now.
The AWS Certified Solution Architect Average Salary is: US $149,446/year. Get Certified with the App below:
The AWS Certified Developer Associate exam is a multiple choice, multiple answer exam. Here is the Exam Overview:
- Certification Name: AWS Certified Developer Associate.
- Prerequisites for the Exam: None.
- Exam Pattern: Multiple Choice Questions
- The AWS Certified Developer-Associate Examination (DVA-C01) is a pass or fail exam. The examination is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals guided by certification industry best practices and guidelines.
- Your results for the examination are reported as a score from 100 – 1000, with a minimum passing score of 720.
- Exam fees: US $150
- Exam Guide on AWS Website
- Available languages for tests: English, Japanese, Korean, Simplified Chinese
- Read AWS whitepapers
- Register for certification account here.
- Prepare for Certification Here
Exam Content Outline
Domain % of Examination Domain 1: Deployment (22%)
1.1 Deploy written code in AWS using existing CI/CD pipelines, processes, and patterns.
1.2 Deploy applications using Elastic Beanstalk.
1.3 Prepare the application deployment package to be deployed to AWS.
1.4 Deploy serverless applications22% Domain 2: Security (26%)
2.1 Make authenticated calls to AWS services.
2.2 Implement encryption using AWS services.
2.3 Implement application authentication and authorization.26% Domain 3: Development with AWS Services (30%)
3.1 Write code for serverless applications.
3.2 Translate functional requirements into application design.
3.3 Implement application design into application code.
3.4 Write code that interacts with AWS services by using APIs, SDKs, and AWS CLI.30% Domain 4: Refactoring
4.1 Optimize application to best use AWS services and features.
4.2 Migrate existing application code to run on AWS.10% Domain 5: Monitoring and Troubleshooting (10%)
5.1 Write code that can be monitored.
5.2 Perform root cause analysis on faults found in testing or production.10% TOTAL 100%
In this AWS tutorial, we are going to discuss how we can make the best use of AWS services to build a highly scalable, and fault tolerant configuration of EC2 instances. The use of Load Balancers and Auto Scaling Groups falls under a number of best practices in AWS, including Performance Efficiency, Reliability and high availability.
Before we dive into this hands-on tutorial on how exactly we can build this solution, let’s have a brief recap on what an Auto Scaling group is, and what a Load balancer is.
Autoscaling group (ASG)
An Autoscaling group (ASG) is a logical grouping of instances which can scale up and scale down depending on pre-configured settings. By setting Scaling policies of your ASG, you can choose how many EC2 instances are launched and terminated based on your application’s load. You can do this based on manual, dynamic, scheduled or predictive scaling.
Elastic Load Balancer (ELB)
An Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) is a name describing a number of services within AWS designed to distribute traffic across multiple EC2 instances in order to provide enhanced scalability, availability, security and more. The particular type of Load Balancer we will be using today is an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The ALB is a Layer 7 Load Balancer designed to distribute HTTP/HTTPS traffic across multiple nodes – with added features such as TLS termination, Sticky Sessions and Complex routing configurations.
Getting Started
First of all, we open our AWS management console and head to the EC2 management console.
We scroll down on the left-hand side and select ‘Launch Templates’. A Launch Template is a configuration template which defines the settings for EC2 instances launched by the ASG.
Under Launch Templates, we will select “Create launch template”.
We specify the name ‘MyTestTemplate’ and use the same text in the description.
Under the ‘Auto Scaling guidance’ box, tick the box which says ‘Provide guidance to help me set up a template that I can use with EC2 Auto Scaling’ and scroll down to launch template contents.
When it comes to choosing our AMI (Amazon Machine Image) we can choose the Amazon Linux 2 under ‘Quick Start’.
The Amazon Linux 2 AMI is free tier eligible, and easy to use for our demonstration purposes.
Next, we select the ‘t2.micro’ under instance types, as this is also free tier eligible.
Under Network Settings, we create a new Security Group called ExampleSG in our default VPC, allowing HTTP access to everyone. It should look like this.
AWS Certified Developer Associate exam: Additional Information for reference
Below are some useful reference links that would help you to learn about AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam.
- Developing on AWS: An instructor-led live or virtual 3-day course
- https://aws.amazon.com/certification/faqs/
- AWS Digital Training: Application Services, Developer Tools, and other services covered on the exam
- Prepare for AWS Certification
- AWS EC2 Instance info
- AWS Certified Developer Associate Exam Guide
The Cloud is the future: Get Certified now.
The AWS Certified Solution Architect Average Salary is: US $149,446/year. Get Certified with the App below:
Other Relevant and Recommended AWS Certifications
The Cloud is the future: Get Certified now.
The AWS Certified Solution Architect Average Salary is: US $149,446/year. Get Certified with the App below:
- AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner
- AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate
- AAWS Certified Developer – Associate
- AWS Certified SysOps Administrator – Associate
- AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional
- AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional
- AWS Certified Big Data Specialty
- AWS Certified Advanced Networking.
- AWS Certified Security – Specialty
Other AWS Facts and Summaries and Questions/Answers Dump
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- AWS DynamoDB facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS EC2 facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
- AWS Serverless facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
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- AWS SES facts and summaries and Questions and Answers Dump
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AWS Certifications Breaking News and Top Stories
- Question: does AWS have any documented limits specifically about UDP traffic? I'm trying to set up a Wireguard VPN tunnel between my VPC and a non-AWS site and it's been nothing but weird issues and pain.by /u/WrathOfTheSwitchKing
I need a sanity check, because it seems that AWS is interfering with high-throughput UDP network loads, and I can not find anything that says I am doing something wrong. I have read the documentation on instance bandwidth and my understanding is that I should expect a Wireguard tunnel or iPerf to reach 5-ish Gbps since it is a single flow, which is acceptable for me. I got the tunnel set up easily enough, but I have had unending issues ever since. First, I got an email from trustandsafety@support.aws.com saying that the EC2 instance "has been implicated in activity that resembles a Denial of Service attack against remote hosts; please review the information provided below about the activity" and some stats: Total Gbits sent: 291.646122624 Total packets sent: 24699028 Total Gbits received: 0.0 Total packets received: 0 Average Gbits/sec sent: 32.4051 Average Packets/sec sent: 2,744,336.4333 It appears the instance(s) may be compromised and triggered an attack. It is advisable to update all applications and ensure the most current patches are applied. It is recommended that no ports be open to the public (0.0.0.0/0 or ::0). Opening ports with vulnerable applications can cause abusive behavior. The instance definitely was not compromised. I was running an iperf3 server (with key, username, and password required) on the AWS instance and running iperf3 -u -b 5000M -R on my non-AWS end to test actual bandwidth. To be clear I wasn't actually trying to transmit 30 Gbps -- it seems something about -R in UDP mode makes iperf's bandwidth limiter not work. At least, I think so. I'm not really willing to try again, since I don't want to make AWS angry. It is also weird that it looks AWS's 5 Gbps single-flow limit did not apply here? Anyways, I answered the email from AWS and explained what I was doing. They seemed happy with my explanation and I went back to happily testing things. And then the public IP just stopped working. I could still ping things on the internet, but I could not make any TCP or UDP connections in or out anymore. The private IP was fine though. I replied to the trustandsafety@support.aws.com address again to ask if there had been any further concerns raised, but did not get a reply. The instance did not recover, so I terminated it and started a new one. And once again, when I started using the new instance "in anger" the public IP went dead. I sent another email to trustandsafety@support.aws.com asking what's up. At current, the new instance has been inoperable for hours and I have received no new contact from AWS even though it sure does seem like something is taking action on the impacted instance's network connections. I don't get it. Surely I am not the only person out there trying to do high-throughput UDP applications with AWS? Why is this so much trouble? And why are we not getting some sort of notification that things are happening? submitted by /u/WrathOfTheSwitchKing [link] [comments]
- Terrified of Upcoming AWS Testby /u/Successful-Moment594
Our organization is taking in internal AWS exam. We do not even use AWS fully, we use some services like S3, SQS, cloudfront. The exam is in 2 weeks and I fear it might be used for tracking performance or even layoffs. I am trying a lot of platforms but my score is not high enough to give me the confidence that I will pass even the cloud practioner. Please suggest me some resources that I can utilize to qualify in 2 weeks. https://preview.redd.it/5wp3r5i6yusd1.png?width=1363&format=png&auto=webp&s=e9ecef305f8bdecc2024ed147f29a246e2019b97 Right now, my score is about 55-60% in the tests. submitted by /u/Successful-Moment594 [link] [comments]
- How hard is the Solutions Architect Associate compared to the CCNA?by /u/CanadianBornChinese
I have just passed the Cisco Certified Network Associate certificate and was thinking about studying for the Solutions Architect Associate Certification. Initially I wanted to do computer networking, but halfway into studying the CCNA I realized that cloud may be a better fit for myself. It also doesn't hurt that Cloud jobs are some of the fastest growing sectors in the IT field. I am trying to break into IT so I don't really have any experience and in this economy it's hard to even land a job. For those of you who have done both, which one did you find harder? submitted by /u/CanadianBornChinese [link] [comments]
- I built a browser extension which makes logging in to IAM Identity Center faster and protects against phishingby /u/humanafterall27
Hey r/aws, I maintain an open source CLI for multi-account AWS access called Granted. I've created a new browser extension (also open source) and thought I'd share here for other IAM Identity Center users. When authenticating to AWS IAM Identity Center using the command line, you'll typically see a confirmation screen in your browser like the one below. This screen appears as part of the OAuth2.0 device code flow that IAM Identity Center uses. The problem with this process is that an attacker who knows your IAM Identity Center URL can craft a malicious login URL and send it to you (or someone else on your team). If you log in using this malicious URL, your access token is sent to the attacker. This works even if you're using phishing-resistant MFA like WebAuthn with Yubikeys, and has been documented by some folks in the community here and here. I've built a browser extension which protects against this by disabling the "Confirm" button if the code shown didn't originate on your device. It works on all Chromium-based browsers. Here's a demo of the extension in action. In addition to phishing protection, the extension makes the login process itself a lot faster by saving you needing to click confirmation buttons manually. https://preview.redd.it/jklsu68lwtsd1.png?width=2159&format=png&auto=webp&s=e0d47b1d95f62154c9eb39900cf66c7a18e5c368 If you're interested in trying it out you can install the CLI and then install the browser extension. I'd love any feedback and suggestions on how to improve it. submitted by /u/humanafterall27 [link] [comments]
- AWS SysOps Courseby /u/Odd-Photograph-5999
Hello so my boss wants me to take the SysOps certificate in about two months and i was looking for courses, i found two that people mostly recommend cantrill and maarek, which one should i go with, i have little experience with aws so i want something that would be more begginer level submitted by /u/Odd-Photograph-5999 [link] [comments]
- Discouraged about SAA - keep failing practice tests after intense studyingby /u/zeninthesmoke
TL;DR I’ve been studying my ass off for SAA for 4-5 months and I just got worse scores on two practice exams than when I took one sight unseen 5 months ago. Every other certification I have done I’ve passed after 1-2 months of studying (CCP, Azure Fundamentals, Tableau Desktop, Security+ etc.). I thought this would be similar — I heard a lot of people say “oh, it’s not that hard, you could do it in a couple weeks, maybe a month.” So I took 2 months. After doing Tutorials Dojo practice questions, reading white papers, doing ExamTopics questions, and watching the whole Stephane Marek class (with all labs, extra YouTube videos, and copious notes) I got literally almost the same scores as before — 60-65% — on the TD practice exams. Undeterred, I buckled down more, took 2 more months — rewatched some of the Marek class, did the entire Neal Davis class on Udemy and reviewed more Exam Topics questions. This time, I felt MUCH BETTER during the practice exams. Furthermore, I can and actually DO at work a fair amount of the stuff that’s talked about on the exam, both on my own time and at my 9-5. Welp: 61% on the first practice test. 67% on the second one. Dude, I have never experienced this type of low return on my time and energy investment in terms of studying/practicing. However, I feel am actually much more competent at AWS the platform after all this studying. But somehow worse at the test. I'm pretty discouraged, guys. Any suggestions (or commiseration/compassion) are welcome. submitted by /u/zeninthesmoke [link] [comments]
- Retrieving all object URLs in S3 bucket?by /u/denkipigeon
Apologies in advance if I'm using the wrong terminology, I'm pretty much just a basic netizen who knows nothing about this. There's an S3 bucket (I'm not the owner) that is storing a bunch of image files - I only have the object URLs for some of the images, however I know for a fact that there are many more stored on there. The bucket I think is private, but all the images were meant to be publicly accessible and downloadable (they used to be up on a now defunct website - the only reason I have some of the URLs is because I've been combing the page captures on the Wayback Machine.) I'd love to somehow get a full list of these URLs to archive all the images, if this is possible? I have a feeling the answer is no, but at this point I'd like to just get told 'no' definitively and move on with my life lol. Thanks in advance! submitted by /u/denkipigeon [link] [comments]
- AWS assessment tipsby /u/AltruisticDish4485
Anyone have any experience on taking the support engineer assessment. I have absolutely no idea what kind of assessment it is and I’m honestly scared to start it. Are these usually personality type assessments or are they technical. I’m not asking for answers for the test but I would like to be able to atleast mentally prepare. submitted by /u/AltruisticDish4485 [link] [comments]
- Can AWS Costs Skyrocket Like Firebase?by /u/zaqoqlf
Hi, I’ve been wondering how AWS compares to Firebase. In my project, I initially relied on Firebase for features like serverless functions, real-time databases, authentication, and storage. The biggest issue I ran into with Firebase, though, was the potential for costs to skyrocket due to something like a DDoS attack, a code mistake, or even small oversights that could leave me with a bill in the thousands in just a couple of days (read & writes costs $). With Firebase lacking any real way to cap the budget or shut down services automatically if things go wrong, I’m left feeling really anxious about getting hit with a surprise $100k bill. Since AWS also uses a pay-as-you-go method, I have the same fear. That’s kind of the "downside" of auto-scaling cloud features, right? You need to write solid code to avoid runaway costs, but we all know that even with careful planning, there’s always the worry of an unexpected huge bill at the end of the month. Does AWS offer any plans with a hard limit instead of the typical pay-as-you-go model? I know AWS is huge, with a big community and the largest cloud market, so I’m curious why so many people choose AWS over Firebase, and why more people don’t just use alternatives like Supabase for simpler use cases? submitted by /u/zaqoqlf [link] [comments]