In this blog, we will help you prepare for the AWS Solution Architect Associate Certification Exam, give you some facts and summaries, provide AWS Solution Architect Associate Top Questions and Answers Dump
Definition 1: Solution architecture is a practice of defining and describing an architecture of a system delivered in context of a specific solution and as such it may encompass description of an entire system or only its specific parts. Definition of a solution architecture is typically led by a solution architect.
Definition 2: The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate examination is intended for individuals who perform a solutions architect role and have one or more years of hands-on experience designing available, cost-efficient, fault-tolerant, and scalable distributed systems on AWS.
AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam Facts and Summaries (SAA-C02)
- This exam validates an examinee’s ability to effectively demonstrate knowledge of how to architect and deploy secure and robust applications on AWS technologies. It validates an examinee’s ability to:
- Define a solution using architectural design principles based on customer requirements.
- Provide implementation guidance based on best practices to the organization throughout the lifecycle of the project.
- There are two types of questions on the examination:
- Multiple-choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors).
- Multiple-response: Has two correct responses out of five options.
Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that an examinee with incomplete knowledge or skill would likely choose. However, they are generally plausible responses that fit in the content area defined by the test objective. Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing.
- The table below lists the main content domains and their weightings:
- Domain 1: Design Resilient Architectures
- Choose reliable/resilient storage.
- Determine how to design decoupling mechanisms using AWS services.
- Determine how to design a multi-tier architecture solution.
- Determine how to design high availability and/or fault tolerant architectures
- Domain 2: Define Performant Architectures
- Choose performant storage and databases.
- Apply caching to improve performance.
- Design solutions for elasticity and scalability.
- Domain 3: Specify Secure Applications and Architectures.
- Determine how to secure application tiers.
- Determine how to secure data.
- Define the networking infrastructure for a single VPC application.
- Domain 4: Design Cost-Optimized Architectures
- Determine how to design cost-optimized storage.
- Determine how to design cost-optimized compute.
- Domain 5: Define Operationally-Excellent Architectures
- Choose design features in solutions that enable operational excellence.
- Take an AWS Training Class
- Study AWS Whitepapers and FAQs: AWS Well-Architected webpage (various whitepapers linked)
- If you are running an application in a production environment and must add a new EBS volume with data from a snapshot, what could you do to avoid degraded performance during the volume’s first use?
Initialize the data by reading each storage block on the volume.
Volumes created from an EBS snapshot must be initialized. Initializing occurs the first time a storage block on the volume is read, and the performance impact can be impacted by up to 50%. You can avoid this impact in production environments by pre-warming the volume by reading all of the blocks.
- If you are running a legacy application that has hard-coded static IP addresses and it is running on an EC2 instance; what is the best failover solution that allows you to keep the same IP address on a new instance?
Elastic IP addresses (EIPs) are designed to be attached/detached and moved from one EC2 instance to another. They are a great solution for keeping a static IP address and moving it to a new instance if the current instance fails. This will reduce or eliminate any downtime uses may experience.
- Which feature of Intel processors help to encrypt data without significant impact on performance?
- You can mount to EFS from which two of the following?
- On-prem servers running Linux
- EC2 instances running Linux
EFS is not compatible with Windows operating systems.
When a file(s) is encrypted and the stored data is not in transit it’s known as encryption at rest. What is an example of encryption at rest?
When would vertical scaling be necessary? When an application is built entirely into one source code, otherwise known as a monolithic application.
Fault-Tolerance allows for continuous operation throughout a failure, which can lead to a low Recovery Time Objective. RPO vs RTO
- High-Availability means automating tasks so that an instance will quickly recover, which can lead to a low Recovery Time Objective. RPO vs. RTO
- Frequent backups reduce the time between the last backup and recovery point, otherwise known as the Recovery Point Objective. RPO vs. RTO
- Which represents the difference between Fault-Tolerance and High-Availability? High-Availability means the system will quickly recover from a failure event, and Fault-Tolerance means the system will maintain operations during a failure.
- From a security perspective, what is a principal? An anonymous user falls under the definition of a principal. A principal can be an anonymous user acting on a system.
An authenticated user falls under the definition of a principal. A principal can be an authenticated user acting on a system.
- What are two types of session data saving for an Application Session State? Stateless and Stateful
23. It is the customer’s responsibility to patch the operating system on an EC2 instance.
24. In designing an environment, what four main points should a Solutions Architect keep in mind? Cost-efficient, secure, application session state, undifferentiated heavy lifting: These four main points should be the framework when designing an environment.
25. In the context of disaster recovery, what does RPO stand for? RPO is the abbreviation for Recovery Point Objective.
26. What are the benefits of horizontal scaling?
Vertical scaling can be costly while horizontal scaling is cheaper.
Horizontal scaling suffers from none of the size limitations of vertical scaling.
Having horizontal scaling means you can easily route traffic to another instance of a server.
Top 65 AWS Solution Architect Associate Exam Prep Questions and Answers Dump – SAA-C02
Q0: A company is developing a highly available web application using stateless web servers. Which services are suitable for storing session state data? (Select TWO.)
- A. CloudWatch
- B. DynamoDB
- C. Elastic Load Balancing
- D. ElastiCache
- E. Storage Gateway
Q1: A Solutions Architect is designing a critical business application with a relational database that runs on an EC2 instance. It requires a single EBS volume that can support up to 16,000 IOPS.
Which Amazon EBS volume type can meet the performance requirements of this application?
- A. EBS Provisioned IOPS SSD
- B. EBS Throughput Optimized HDD
- C. EBS General Purpose SSD
- D. EBS Cold HDD
Q2: An application running on EC2 instances processes sensitive information stored on Amazon S3. The information is accessed over the Internet. The security team is concerned that the Internet connectivity to Amazon S3 is a security risk.
Which solution will resolve the security concern?
- A. Access the data through an Internet Gateway.
- B. Access the data through a VPN connection.
- C. Access the data through a NAT Gateway.
- D.Access the data through a VPC endpoint for Amazon S3
Q3: An organization is building an Amazon Redshift cluster in their shared services VPC. The cluster will host sensitive data.
How can the organization control which networks can access the cluster?
- A. Run the cluster in a different VPC and connect through VPC peering.
- B. Create a database user inside the Amazon Redshift cluster only for users on the network.
- C. Define a cluster security group for the cluster that allows access from the allowed networks.
- D. Only allow access to networks that connect with the shared services network via VPN.
Q4: A web application allows customers to upload orders to an S3 bucket. The resulting Amazon S3 events trigger a Lambda function that inserts a message to an SQS queue. A single EC2 instance reads messages from the queue, processes them, and stores them in an DynamoDB table partitioned by unique order ID. Next month traffic is expected to increase by a factor of 10 and a Solutions Architect is reviewing the architecture for possible scaling problems.
Which component is MOST likely to need re-architecting to be able to scale to accommodate the new traffic?
- A. Lambda function
- B. SQS queue
- C. EC2 instance
- D. DynamoDB table
Q5: An application requires a highly available relational database with an initial storage capacity of 8 TB. The database will grow by 8 GB every day. To support expected traffic, at least eight read replicas will be required to handle database reads.
Which option will meet these requirements?
- A. DynamoDB
- B. Amazon S3
- C. Amazon Aurora
- D. Amazon Redshift
Q6: How can you improve the performance of EFS?
- A. Use an instance-store backed EC2 instance.
- B. Provision more throughput than is required.
- C. Divide your files system into multiple smaller file systems.
- D. Provision higher IOPs for your EFS.
If you are designing an application that requires fast (10 – 25Gbps), low-latency connections between EC2 instances, what EC2 feature should you use?
- A. Snapshots
- B. Instance store volumes
- C. Placement groups
- D. IOPS provisioned instances.
Q8: A Solution Architect is designing an online shopping application running in a VPC on EC2 instances behind an ELB Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. The application tier must read and write data to a customer managed database cluster. There should be no access to the database from the Internet, but the cluster must be able to obtain software patches from the Internet.
Which VPC design meets these requirements?
- A. Public subnets for both the application tier and the database cluster
- B. Public subnets for the application tier, and private subnets for the database cluster
- C. Public subnets for the application tier and NAT Gateway, and private subnets for the database cluster
- D. Public subnets for the application tier, and private subnets for the database cluster and NAT Gateway
Q9: What command should you run on a running instance if you want to view its user data (that is used at launch)?
- A. curl http://254.169.254.169/latest/user-data
- B. curl http://localhost/latest/meta-data/bootstrap
- C. curl http://localhost/latest/user-data
- D. curl http://169.254.169.254/latest/user-data
Q10: A company is developing a highly available web application using stateless web servers. Which
services are suitable for storing session state data? (Select TWO.)
- A. CloudWatch
- B. DynamoDB
- C. Elastic Load Balancing
- D. ElastiCache
- E. Storage Gateway
Q11: From a security perspective, what is a principal?
- A. An identity
- B. An anonymous user
- C. An authenticated user
- D. A resource